Friday, November 22, 2019

BZ440 Lesson 2 Esam SCORE 95 PERCENT.....man

Question 1
__________ refers to the values that are subscribed to and fostered by society in general and by individuals within society.
Question options:

a)     Ethics


b)     Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs


c)     Morality


d)     Social responsibility

Question 2
Managers can play a role in promoting ethical behavior on the job by:
Question options:

a)     maintaining sound financial standards.


b)     implementing total quality.


c)     ensuring customer satisfaction.


d)     developing written ethics guidelines.

Question 3
Which one of the following is NOT a category of competitive strategy?
Question options:

a)     Cost leadership


b)     Product positioning


c)     Market-niche


d)     Differentiation

Question 4
__________ is a balanced approach for organizations to address economic, social, and environmental issues in a way that aims to benefit people, communities, and society.
Question options:

a)     Best-ratio ethics


b)     Corporate social responsibility


c)     Full-potential ethics


d)     The balanced scorecard

Question 5
The firm's __________ establish the framework which will define(s) its attitudes and policies for all employees.
Question options:

a)     mission


b)     vision


c)     values or guiding principles


d)     strategy

Question 6
Which of the following statements does NOT apply when developing a mission statement?
Question options:

a)     Include the how-to statements


b)     Describe the "who, what, and where" of the organization


c)     Be brief, but comprehensive


d)     Choose wording that is simple

Question 7
From a __________ perspective, resources are wasted unless they contribute to success in the marketplace, and the more direct the contribution, the better.
Question options:

a)     global economic


b)     customer service


c)     strategic manager's


d)     world-class manufacturing

Question 8
The firm's __________ describe(s) where the organization is headed.
Question options:

a)     mission


b)     vision


c)     values or guiding principles


d)     strategy

Question 9
When handling an ethical dilemma, managers should select the option that will most likely:
Question options:

a)     pass the various ethics tests.


b)     build strength in the organization.


c)     adopt a black-and-white approach.


d)     cause the least amount of conflict.

Question 10
The __________ approach to ethics is a pragmatic approach based on the belief that people are basically good.
Question options:

a)     best-ratio


b)     black-and-white


c)     full-potential


d)     morally responsible

Question 11
Values that lead to ethical behavior include fairness, honesty, truthfulness, and:
Question options:

a)     contribution.


b)     self-development.


c)     dependability.


d)     quality performance.

Question 12
Existing literature generally agrees on three dimensions of sustainability. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
Question options:

a)     Operational


b)     Economic


c)     Social


d)     Environmental

Question 13
Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of total quality that depend on trust?
Question options:

a)     Employee involvement


b)     Training


c)     Problem solving


d)     Conflict management

Question 14
The __________ consists of the specific tactics, projects, and activities for achieving broad strategic objectives.
Question options:

a)     action plan


b)     strategic plan


c)     SWOT analysis


d)     business model

Question 15
When providing ethics training, it is important to:
Question options:

a)     facilitate, don't preach.


b)     stimulate discussion.


c)     highlight practical applications.


d)     All of the above are important.

Question 16
An __________ is any characteristic or capability that puts the organization at a competitive disadvantage.
Question options:

a)     external threat


b)     internal threat


c)     environmental weakness


d)     organizational weakness

Question 17
An organization's responsibilities for ensuring ethical behavior include:
Question options:

a)     paying whistleblowers to speak up.


b)     creating an ethical environment.


c)     establishing in-house courts and juries.


d)     refusing to talk to the media.

Question 18
One of the best ways managers can help build trust is to:
Question options:

a)     ensure that organizational guidelines are followed.


b)     protect the interests of those who are not present at the time as if they were.


c)     promote responsibility and total quality expectations.


d)     demonstrate integrity and ethical behavior.

Question 19
To promote successful execution of strategies, organizations should undertake which of the following strategies?
Question options:

a)     Eliminate administrative barriers


b)     Conduct a secondary SWOT analysis


c)     Hold a stakeholder's gap analysis


d)     Contract with an execution specialist

Question 20
The concepts of trust, integrity, and __________ are part of the value system of total quality.
Question options:

a)     morality


b)     responsibility





c)     vision


d)     legality



BZ440 Exam 8 SCORE 90 PERCENT.......management

Lesson 8 Exam
Question 1
The most common inhibitor of SPC is:
Question options:

a)     inadequate training.


b)     lack of resources resulting from the absence of management commitment.


c)     failure to have processes under control.


d)     low production rates.

Question 2
The origin of what is now called ________ dates back to a book written by Dr. Walter Shewhart in 1931.
Question options:

a)     quality engineering


b)     compliance management


c)     statistical process control


d)     QFD

Question 3
In the language of scientific decision making, ________is/are introduced when improvements are not based on the scientific approach.
Question options:

a)     complexity


b)     variation


c)     inefficiency


d)     None of the above

Question 4
Re-engineering is an appropriate replacement for benchmarking when:
Question options:

a)     tour process is fairly strong relative to best-in-class.


b)     the best-in-class is not in your industry.


c)     your process is not in statistical control, i.e., is unstable.


d)     best-in-class is unwilling to cooperate.

Question 5
The rationale for western manufacturers to embrace SPC is:
Question options:

a)     to improve product quality and simultaneously reduce costs.


b)     to be able to compete better with Japan and the world's markets.


c)     to improve their product image.


d)     All of the above

Question 6
The __________ phase of DMAIC focuses on why defects, errors, or excessive variation occurs.
Question options:

a)     Define


b)     Measure


c)     Analyze


d)     Control

Question 7
When benchmarking, it is not enough to understand the processes; they must be completely:
Question options:

a)     analyzed.


b)     tested.


c)     documented.


d)     integrated.

Question 8
One of the roles of management in benchmarking is:
Question options:

a)     establishing relationships.


b)     disclosure.


c)     data collection.


d)     action planning.

Question 9
Which of the following is NOT a measure in TOC?
Question options:

a)     Establishing the goal


b)     Making the investment


c)     Operating expenses


d)     Throughput

Question 10
Six Sigma can only be achieved through:
Question options:

a)     hiring new staff.


b)     process improvement.


c)     creating a new mission statement.


d)     cutting costs.

Question 11
The __________ is used to chart the number of defects in samples of varying size as a percentage or fraction. Example: anywhere defects can be counted.
Question options:

a)     p-chart


b)     np-chart


c)     c-chart


d)     u-chart

Question 12
Which of the following behaviors best describe the concept of benchmarking?
Question options:

a)     Unethical


b)     Illegal


c)     Industrial espionage


d)     None of the above

Question 13
One of the three phases of benchmarking is:
Question options:

a)     conclusion.


b)     post-execution.


c)     reporting.


d)     modification.

Question 14
In which phase of the DMAIC process might FMEA be used?
Question options:

a)     Define


b)     Measure


c)     Analyze


d)     Control

Question 15
Several benchmarking considerations require management's approval before the process can start: commitment to change, funding, personnel, disclosure, and:
Question options:

a)     oversight.


b)     Direction.


c)     involvement.


d)     Direct supervision.

Question 16
Six Sigma process performance:
Question options:

a)     represents a major advance in capability over the typical.


b)     has yet to be achieved in actual practice.


c)     predicts 1 nonconformance in 500 million opportunities.


d)     is useful only in large scale manufacturing.

Question 17
The JIT/LEAN/Lean "pull" system ensures that:
Question options:

a)     costs are minimized through "economy of scale."


b)     the production line will never stop because of a problem.


c)     buffer stocks are on hand to prevent line stoppage when a critical machine fails.


d)     the internal supplier process does not build product unless told to do so by the internal customer process.

Question 18
To continually improve a process, all people involved in its operation must be using the same:
Question options:

a)     documentation methods.


b)     analysis techniques.


c)     problem-solving tools.


d)     procedures.

Question 19
Lean is based on the manufacturing system that was developed by:
Question options:

a)     Motorola.


b)     Toyota.


c)     Goldratt.


d)     IBM.

Question 20
_________ approaches improvement projects in three successive phases, applying TOC, Lean, and then Six Sigma tools.
Question options:

a)     The iTLS model


b)     Kaizen


c)     CEDAC


d)     SIPOC





BZ440 Assignment 8

ASSIGNMENT 08

BZ440 Quality Control

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

Today's business arenas are extremely competitive nationally and internationally. Please thoughtfully consider the following statements and provide answers supported from information in your textbook and include at least two outside sources with appropriate citations.

 

1.      Support a leadership impact ideology for TQ implementation by synthesizing the processes necessary to provide an organization with a TQ paradigm.

 

2.      Assess three (3) characteristics that contribute to a TQ organization by prioritizing the steps necessary to achieve a competitive advantage in the marketplace using TQ methodology.

 

3.      Evaluate how you, as a manger, would integrate three (3) specific leadership initiative tools to provide your company with a TQ organization.



 

BZ440 Assignment 04 Quality Control

ASSIGNMENT 04

BZ440 Quality Control

Directions:  Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home page for specific format requirements.

 

One of the philosophies mentioned in your text includes the strategy of Plan, Do, Check, and Act. Please keep this philosophy in mind when considering the information required below.

 

1. Discuss the premise of TQ. Then, design a TQ initiative for a company of your choosing, outlining steps that will provide internal and external support for your initiative.

 

2. Outline a plan for a team meeting with your managers, and elaborate how together you will disseminate this plan to the entire company.

 

3. Evaluate the potential impact of your meeting and the launching of your TQ plan, including two (2) strengths and two (2) weaknesses of the plan.


 

OR110 Lesson 7 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Breaking up study times across several days is more effective than cramming.
Question options:

True

False
7-1-2
Question 2        10 / 10 points
Reviewing material within 24 hours after learning for the first time can increase retention.
Question options:

True

False
Question 3        10 / 10 points
The memory consolidation process occurs working when you are:
Question options:

Awake

Asleep

Exercising

Reading
7-1-3
Question 4        10 / 10 points
Which of the following would NOT be particularly effective content for flashcards?
Question options:

Dates and facts

Foreign language drills

Analysis of english literature

Vocabulary words
Question 5        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is an example of an engagement strategy?
Question options:

Using flashcards

Listening to classical music

Cramming

Multitasking
Question 6        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is an example of an active recall technique?
Question options:

Using flashcards

Listening to classical music

Cramming

Multitasking
7-1-4
Question 7        10 / 10 points
Stress is good for our health and rarely hinders learning.
Question options:

True

False
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is NOT an example of a studying technique?
Question options:

Teaching someone else the information

Using flashcards

Shifting your study location

Cramming
Question 9        10 / 10 points
Studies have shown that multitasking is beneficial for studying.
Question options:

True

False
7-1-5
Question 10        10 / 10 points
Benedict Carey advises to study smarter, not harder.
Question options:

True

False




OR110 Lesson 6 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Time management skills can be applied to many areas of your life
Question options:

True

False
6-1-2
Question 2        10 / 10 points
A timer is used when applying the chunking technique.
Question options:

True

False
Question 3        10 / 10 points
Suppose you are in the midst of your work and your phone rings. You decide to stop your work and answer the phone, but inform the person that you will call the back in an hour. You then hang up the phone and continue your task. This is an example of:
Question options:

Breaking your work into chunks

Dealing with distractions

Cramming

Multitasking
Question 4        10 / 10 points
Cramming in long sessions of studying is the most effective way to absorb information.
Question options:

True

False
Question 5        10 / 10 points
Time management strategies can and should be personalized.
Question options:

True

False
Question 6        10 / 10 points
Interval studying requires intervals of 25 minute time chunks.
Question options:

True

False
Question 7        10 / 10 points
Breaking your work up into smaller, more manageable pieces that are broken up by short breaks is known as ______________.
Question options:

Chunking

Cramming

Distracting

Multitasking
6-1-3
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is NOT a tip for time management?
Question options:

Keep your goals

Protect your time

Think about the 80/20 rule

All of the above are time management tips
Question 9        10 / 10 points
To do lists are an example of everyday time management.
Question options:

True

False
Question 10        10 / 10 points
Creating a priority list and scheduling time for each item is a time management tip.
Question options:

True

False




OR110 Lesson 4 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Two main characteristics of a critical thinker are being open-minded and an independent thinker.
Question options:

True

False
4-1-2
Question 2        10 / 10 points
Critical thinking doesn't require much effort because it focuses on surface level information.
Question options:

True

False
4-1-3
Question 3        10 / 10 points
Conducting research is important because it allows you to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Question options:

Create an organized, factual paper

Become an expert on a topic

Support your general knowledge with provable facts

Conducting research allows you to do all of the above
4-1-4
Question 4        10 / 10 points
The only way you can obtain reliable sources is by checking out books from a library.
Question options:

True

False
Question 5        10 / 10 points
All of the following are rules you need to follow to avoid plagiarism EXCEPT:
Question options:

Paraphrase

Cite sources

Copy sentences word for word

Use a reference list
Question 6        10 / 10 points
The key to writing a research paper is to find accurate and relevant facts to support your claim.
Question options:

True

False
Question 7        10 / 10 points
Ashworth Learning Center provides all of the following EXCEPT:
Question options:

Resources tailored to your program major

Numerous Databases

Tools to find credible academic source

Ashworth Learning Center provides all of the above
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Anecdotal information is based on:
Question options:

Facts

Personal Opinion

Data

Research
4-1-5
Question 9        10 / 10 points
Imagine you are going to buy your first car. You have been saving money every since you were 16 years old. Your dream car is a Mercedes Benz, but after careful consideration of your other financial responsibilities like college tuition you realize it is an unrealistic car for you. You decide instead to buy a smaller cheaper car that will fit into your budget. This scenario is best described as an example of:
Question options:

Negotiating

Critical thinking

Researching

Understanding
Question 10        10 / 10 points
Charlie is reading a chapter in his global history textbook to help him write his term paper. Charlie takes the time to comprehend the information that he reads in each section to make sure he understand the information. What step in the critical thinking process is Charlie displaying?
Question options:

Watch, Read, and Listen

Analyze the information

Form an opinion

Apply the information




OR110 Lesson 3 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is NOT a reason to create an outline for a paper?
Question options:

Organize your thoughts logically

Focus on the main points of your topic

Lengthen the amount of time you spend on your paper

Set you up for success
Question 2        10 / 10 points
Which of the following sequences should you follow when creating an outline?
Question options:

Brainstorm, bullet your main thoughts, expand upon each bullet, revise

Bullet your main thoughts, brainstorm, expand upon each bullet, revise

Bullet your main thoughts, expand upon each bullet, brain storm, revise

Brainstorm, revise, bullet your main thoughts, expand upon each bullet
Question 3        10 / 10 points
Once you have your topics selected for each paragraph you will need to come up with at least three or four key points. These claims need to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Question options:

Relate to

Support

Prove

Distract
3-1-2
Question 4        10 / 10 points
Combine these two sentences: "It was a bright cold day in April" and "The clocks were striking thirteen." Based on these sentences, which of the following represents a compound sentence with proper punctuation?
Question options:

"It was a bright day in April and the clocks were striking thirteen."

"The clocks were striking thirteen and it was a bright cold day in April."

"It was a bright cold day in April, and the clocks were striking thirteen."

These sentences cannot be combined
Question 5        10 / 10 points
What type of punctuation is crucial when listing things in your writing?
Question options:

Exclamation points

Periods

Semicolons

Commas
Question 6        10 / 10 points
The following sentence has correct punctuation: "In spite of everything I still believe people are really good at heart."
Question options:

True

False
3-1-3
Question 7        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is a proofing and revising tip to help you check your work?
Question options:

Use tools in the Ashworth College Writing Lab

Refer to a style guide

Read your paper aloud

All of the above are helpful tips
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Punctuation can be used as a style device to create all of the following EXCEPT:
Question options:

Pauses

Rhythm

Flow

Verb agreement
3-1-4
Question 9        10 / 10 points
All of the following are tips to help you develop voice in your writing EXCEPT:
Question options:

Identify qualities of your personality

Mimic other people's writing styles

Free write topics of your choice to craft your style

Write what feels natural to you
Question 10        10 / 10 points
Which of the following tones correctly matches the topic of writing?
Question options:

Writing a research paper about the Industrial Revolution with an informal tone

Writing a magazine column on the latest relationship drama in Hollywood with a formal tone

Writing a blog post for a lifestyle website with an informal tone

Writing an industry summary for business research with an informal tone


^

OR110 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Reading comprehension and test taking strategies are not interrelated.
Question options:

True

False
Question 2        10 / 10 points
Reading comprehension is important for academics and everyday life.
Question options:

True

False
2-1-2
Question 3        10 / 10 points
There is no difference between reading the words and retain what is being said.
Question options:

True

False
2-1-3
Question 4        10 / 10 points
Abbreviations and symbols can be helpful for jotting and notetaking.
Question options:

True

False
Question 5        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is the best plan of attack for answering multiple choice questions based on a reading passage?
Question options:

Read the question, put the question into your own words, go into the passage and find evidence, pick the best option that best matches your thinking

Read the question, go into the passage and find evidence, put the question into your own words, pick the best option that best matches your thinking

Pick the best option that best matches your thinking, read the question, put the question into your own words, go into the passage and find evidence

Go into the passage and find evidence, read the question, put the question into your own words, pick the best option that best matches your thinking
Question 6        10 / 10 points
The E in PRESS stands for evaluate.
Question options:

True

False
Question 7        10 / 10 points
The C in the mnemonic RACE stands for ___________.
Question options:

Create ideas

Cite evidence

Combine answers

Closing thoughts
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Checking how long a reading passage is, figuring out what genre it is, and and seeing if there are any text features that will help your understanding of the passage are actions best represented by which of the following?
Question options:

Understanding

Previewing

Summarizing

Chunking
2-1-4
Question 9        10 / 10 points
The following are all possible ways to take notes EXCEPT:
Question options:

Jotting in the margins

Highlighting and underlining parts of the text

Writing down key points made in a video

All of the above are ways to take notes
Question 10        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is a strategy to take notes on an online lecture or video?
Question options:

Listen for meaning during the lecture or video

Paraphrase what is being said

Think about what you have learned after it is over

All of the above are ways to take notes





Saturday, November 16, 2019

OR110 Lesson 1 Exam SCORE 70 PERCENT

Question 1        10 / 10 points
Visual learners benefit from pictures and diagrams.
Question options:

True

False
Question 2        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is most helpful for an auditory learner?
Question options:

Write out checklists

Hands-on experiments

Read material aloud

Diagrams
1-1-2
Question 3        10 / 10 points
Every student needs to have the same learning style.
Question options:

True

False
Question 4        0 / 10 points
Which of the following is NOT a learning style discussed?
Question options:

Visual learner

Auditory learner

Sensory learner

Kinesthetic learner  (Incorrect)
1-1-3
Question 5        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is an example of a long-term goal?
Question options:

Writing a paper

Completing your college education

Studying for a test

Getting a good grade on your next quiz
Question 6        10 / 10 points
Quinn is motivated to complete his undergraduate degree. He wishes to not only grow from the challenges that education brings, but also learn how to effectively tackle tasks, solve problems and meet deadlines in the process. Another motivational factor for Quinn is to inspire his son Jack to further his education one day and to show him that you can do anything you set your mind to. Which of the following pairs of motivational factors applies to Quinn?
Question options:

Credentials and leading by example

Practical skills and open doors

Pride and practical skills

Practical skills and leading by example
1-1-4
Question 7        10 / 10 points
All of the following are necessary when setting goals EXCEPT:
Question options:

Stay flexible

Organize and prioritize supporting goals

Give up if your plan is not working

Breakdown your goal into smaller steps
Question 8        10 / 10 points
Which of the following is NOT a reason why you should work towards your undergraduate degree?
Question options:

To increase earned income

To gain experiences for personal growth

To gain practical skills

All of the above are reasons why you should work towards your degree
1-1-5
Question 9        0 / 10 points
Which of the following is a characteristic of a short term goal?
Question options:

It can be broken down into smaller steps

It is a milestone accomplishment(Incorrect)

It takes excessive time and planning

Receiving a college degree is an example of it
Question 10        0 / 10 points
Eva wants to receive a high score on her next exam in Calculus. Eva has decided that she will study every day starting two weeks before the exam. In order to accomplish this, she will need to complete ten practice questions a day. After organizing and prioritizing her schedule in order to accommodate her studying and according to the tips in the lesson which question will she need to ask herself next?
Question options:

What are the resources or assistance I will need to reach my goal?

What should I do to adjust my goal if my plan isn't working? (Incorrect)

What goal do I want to achieve?

What should my next goal be?





Tuesday, November 12, 2019

FIN571 Week-2 Stock Valuation and Analysis (2019).....

Stock Valuation and Analysis

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Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to allow students the opportunity to research a Fortune 500 company stock using the popular online research tool Yahoo Finance. The tool allows the student to review analyst reports and other key financial information necessary to evaluate the stock value and make an educated decision on whether to invest. 

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Yahoo Finance 

Select a Fortune 500 Company from one of the following industries:

·         Pharmaceutical

·         Energy

·         Retail

·         Automotive

·         Computer Hardware

·         Manufacturing

·         Mining

AccessYahoo Finance and enter the company name. 

Review the financial information and statistics provided for the stock you selected and answer the following:

·         What is the ticker symbol of the company you chose?

·         What is the Current Stock Price?

·         What is the Market Cap for the stock you chose?

·         What is the Price to Earnings Ratio?

·         What is the Dividend and Yield?

·         What is the Enterprise Value?

·         What is the Beta?

·         Was there a Stock Split, and if so, when?

·         What was the closing stock price for the last 5 days?

·         What was the 52 Week High for this stock?

·         What is the Book Value per Share?

·         What type of rating are analysts recommending (i.e. buy, hold, etc.)?

·         What is the target price analysts are predicting for this stock?

·         What is the analyst's average revenue estimate for next year?

·         What are some of the significant news items and press releases made by the company over the last year? 

Explain in 700 words why you would or would not recommend investing in this stock.

·         Describe the relationship between the value of the stock and the price to earnings ratio. 

·         What information does the Market Capitalization (Market Cap) and Beta provide to the investor?



 

 

FIN571 Week-1 Financial Ratio Analysis 2019........

WEEK 1

Financial Ratio Analysis

Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to help students gain a better understanding of the financial statements used for corporate financial reporting and the key ratios used to make business decisions. 

Assignment Steps 

Select a Fortune 500 Company from one of the following industries:

·         Pharmaceutical

·         Energy

·         Retail

·         Automotive

·         Computer Hardware

Review the balance sheet and income statement in the company's 2015 Annual Report. 

Calculate the following ratios using Microsoft® Excel®:

·         Current Ratio

·         Quick Ratio

·         Debt Equity Ratio

·         Inventory Turnover Ratio

·         Receivables Turnover Ratio

·         Total Assets Turnover Ratio

·         Profit Margin (Net Margin) Ratio

·         Return on Assets Ratio

Analyze in 1,050 words why each ratio is important for financial decision making. 

Submit your analysis as well as your calculations.


 

 

 

 

C11 Lesson 4 & 5 Exam SCORE 92.5 Percent

Lesson 4
Question 1        2.5 / 2.5 points
If government increases spending and wants to maintain a balanced budget, it should __________.
Question options:

decrease taxes by an equal amount

increase taxes by an equal amount

decrease taxes by an amount equal to the increase in spending multiplied by the tax multiplier

increase taxes by an amount equal to the increase in spending multiplied by the tax multiplier
Question 2        2.5 / 2.5 points
Higher real interest rates resulting from a government budget deficit will __________ the amount of loanable funds a firm demands for their investments.
Question options:

stabilize

decrease

not affect

increase
Question 3        0 / 2.5 points
Which of the following is NOT a key financial institution?
Question options:

insurance companies

stock markets

commercial banks

government-sponsored mortgage lenders
Question 4        2.5 / 2.5 points
What was one of the biggest contributing factors that led to the failure of financial institutions during the recent economic crisis?
Question options:

low interest rates

high employment rates

rising home prices

strong corporate management
Question 5        2.5 / 2.5 points
If a firm increases its capital stock per person while holding constant the number of workers employed, the firm is said to experience __________.
Question options:

capital augmentation

investment deepening

labor intensity

capital deepening
Question 6        2.5 / 2.5 points
Nations that borrow from abroad to support current investment will __________.
Question options:

always be better off in the future

always sacrifice future consumption

be better off in the future if the investments are profitable

sacrifice future consumption only if the investments are profitable
Question 7        2.5 / 2.5 points
According to the text, __________ is perhaps the most critical aspect of a country's economic performance.
Question options:

growth in GDP

the inflation rate

the unemployment rate

the living standard
Question 8        2.5 / 2.5 points
In developing countries, the highest returns are from investing in __________.
Question options:

transportation systems

sanitation systems

education

defense
Question 9        2.5 / 2.5 points
Nations with low levels of GDP per capita may converge to richer nations if __________.
Question options:

nations with high levels of income experience a continuously increasing growth rate

nations with lower levels of income grow more quickly than those with higher levels of income

nations with lower levels of income spend less on investment

nations with lower levels of income grow more slowly than those with higher levels of income
Question 10        2.5 / 2.5 points
An increase in the capital stock will __________.
Question options:

shift the production function downward

shift the production function upward

flatten the production function

steepen the production function
Question 11        2.5 / 2.5 points
What happens to U.S. GDP when foreign countries experience prosperity?
Question options:

It increases because the United States will export more product to those countries.

It decreases because the foreign countries will now buy more of their own products.

It decreases because the foreign countries will be able to export more at a lower cost.

It does not change because U.S. GDP is not affected by other countries' prosperity.
Question 12        2.5 / 2.5 points
The multiplier that arises from equal increases in government spending and taxes is called the __________.
Question options:

simple multiplier

tax multiplier

balanced budget multiplier

government spending multiplier
Question 13        2.5 / 2.5 points
Convergence refers to closing the gap in __________ between poorer countries and richer countries.
Question options:

real GDP

real GDP per capita

the growth rate in real GDP

the growth rate in real GDP per capita
Question 14        2.5 / 2.5 points
Which of the following uses of tax revenues collected by the government leads to increased capital deepening?
Question options:

building roads

increased foreign aid

Medicare payments

Social Security payments
Question 15        2.5 / 2.5 points
The fraction of additional income spent on imports is called the __________.
Question options:

import function

marginal propensity to import

marginal propensity to export

trade balance
Question 16        2.5 / 2.5 points
Economic growth is severely impeded in economies __________.
Question options:

with a lack of clear property rights

with a strong market system

with high rates of convergence

which encourage induced innovation
Question 17        2.5 / 2.5 points
According to the method of growth accounting, which of the following contribute to economic growth?
Question options:

capital growth

labor growth

technological progress

all of the above
Question 18        0 / 2.5 points
Fluctuations in the demand and supply of loanable funds will in turn bring changes to the __________ of lent and borrowed funds.
Question options:

product recipient

mortgage-backed securities

equilibrium quantity

equilibrium quality
Question 19        2.5 / 2.5 points
Suppose that for a given firm, the increase in output resulting from the last worker hired is less than the increase in output of the previous worker hired. This is an example of __________.
Question options:

diminishing returns

constant returns

increasing return

capital deepening
Question 20        2.5 / 2.5 points
If the government __________ taxes to pay for spending on infrastructure, the result will most likely be a(n. __________ in capital deepening.
Question options:

increases; increase

decreases; increase

increases; decrease

eliminates; elimination
Lesson 5
Question 21        2.5 / 2.5 points
Equilibrium in the money market occurs when __________.
Question options:

the quantity of money demanded equals the quantity of money supplied

the quantity of money demanded is less than the quantity of money supplied

the quantity of money demanded is more than the quantity of money supplied

the interest rate equals the money supply
Question 22        2.5 / 2.5 points
The Federal Reserve System was created by the __________.
Question options:

U.S. Treasury

President

Congress

Supreme Court
Question 23        2.5 / 2.5 points
What impact does the Fed's raising the interest rate have on the money supply and on the price level?
Question options:

An increase in interest rates raises the money supply and eventually reduces prices.

An increase in interest rates reduces the money demand which will slow the growth in prices.

An increase in interest rates lowers the money supply and raises the money demand, which will neutralize price increases.

An increase in interest rates will increase investment spending and GDP, which will lower prices.
Question 24        2.5 / 2.5 points
Loans are examples of a bank's __________.
Question options:

assets

liabilities

net worth

balance sheet
Question 25        2.5 / 2.5 points
One of the essential functions that a bank performs is __________.
Question options:

purchasing government bonds

creating deposits by lending required reserves

transferring money from savers to lenders

owning assets like real estate
Question 26        0 / 2.5 points
By law, banks are required to __________.
Question options:

hold 100 percent of customer deposits as reserves

hold a fraction of their reserves at the Federal Reserve bank

hold a fraction of demand deposits as reserves

lend out no more than the amount of their required reserves
Question 27        2.5 / 2.5 points
When checks are exchanged between banks, the Fed oversees the banks to ensure the appropriate funds have been transferred. This is known as __________.
Question options:

check kiting

check clearing

check floating

check balancing
Question 28        2.5 / 2.5 points
The supply of money in the U.S. economy is determined primarily by __________.
Question options:

decisions made by the Federal Reserve and the U.S. Treasury

the actions of the Federal Reserve and the banking system

consumers and the banking system

the demand for money in the economy
Question 29        2.5 / 2.5 points
Consider how the value of the U.S. dollar affects the worldwide increase in commodity prices to answer the following two question(s.. Starting in the summer of 2010, there was a rise in prices of commodities such as oil and food worldwide. Some economists suggested that monetary policy in the United States was the cause of the worldwide commodity boom. Some economists noticed that the change in the value of the U.S. dollar was largely due to the change in interest rates, and the change in interest rates occurred because of the Fed's use of __________ to further stimulate the economy.
Question options:

open market sales

quantitative easing

discount operations

open market purchases
Question 30        2.5 / 2.5 points
M1 __________.
Question options:

is the sum of currency plus traveler's checks

is the narrowest definition of the money supply

includes small time deposits

includes credit cards
Question 31        2.5 / 2.5 points
All of the following statements are true of the Federal Reserve EXCEPT __________.
Question options:

it acts as the central bank for all countries in the world

along with the Board of Governors, the chairperson of the Federal Reserve determines monetary policies and strategies based on the state of economy

it supplies currency to the economy

it holds reserves from banks and regulates banks
Question 32        2.5 / 2.5 points
An open market __________ by the Fed decreases the money supply, which leads to __________ interest rates and a fall in investment spending.
Question options:

sale; increased

sale; decreased

purchase; increased

purchase; decreased
Question 33        2.5 / 2.5 points
In the __________ , increases in the supply of money will __________.
Question options:

short run; raise total demand and output

long run; raise total demand and output

long run; lead to lower prices

short run; decrease total demand and output
Question 34        2.5 / 2.5 points
The group responsible for deciding on monetary policy is the __________.
Question options:

Federal Open Market Committee

Board of Governors only

Federal Advisory Council

group of 12 Federal Reserve Bank presidents only
Question 35        2.5 / 2.5 points
An increase in the reserve requirement __________.
Question options:

increases the money supply, which leads to increased interest rates and a decrease in GDP

increases the money supply, which leads to decreased interest rates and a decrease in GDP

decreases the money supply, which leads to increased interest rates and a decrease in GDP

decreases the money supply, which leads to decreased interest rates and a decrease in GDP
Question 36        2.5 / 2.5 points
Good news for the economy is bad news for bond prices, because __________.
Question options:

the increased demand for money will increase interest rates

when real GDP increases, demand for money will decrease

bond prices move in the same direction as interest rates

when interest rates increase during growing GDP, bond prices will increase
Question 37        2.5 / 2.5 points
A bank may make loans until its __________.
Question options:

required reserves are exhausted

excess reserves are exhausted

total assets are exhausted

total liabilities are exhausted
Question 38        2.5 / 2.5 points
Based on the model of the money market, if prices in the economy decrease, the equilibrium interest rate should __________.
Question options:

stay the same

increase

decrease

increase to the same extent that the supply of money increases
Question 39        2.5 / 2.5 points
The Federal Reserve influences the level of interest rates in the short run by changing the __________.
Question options:

demand for money through open market operations

demand for money through changes in reserve requirements

supply of money through open market operations

supply of money through changes in stock market operations
Question 40        2.5 / 2.5 points
If money is used as a mechanism to hold purchasing power for a period of time, it is functioning as a __________.
Question options:

standard of value

store of value

medium of exchange

unit of account




C11 Lesson 3 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT.......(objective questions)

Lesson 3
Question 1        5 / 5 points
The fraction of the working-age population that is in the labor force is called the __________.
Question options:

employment rate

unemployment rate

labor force participation rate

nonresponse rate
Question 2        5 / 5 points
Economists say that the economy is at "fullemployment" when the __________.
Question options:

structural unemployment rate is zero

total unemployment rate is zero

frictional unemployment rate is zero

cyclical unemployment rate is zero
Question 3        5 / 5 points
The value of a dollar __________.
Question options:

is its purchasing power

remains constant over time

is its face value

is set by the government
Question 4        5 / 5 points
What does the Consumer Price Index (CPI. measure?
Question options:

prices of durable goods

prices of non-durable goods

the cost of living over time

the cost of replacing lost items
Question 5        5 / 5 points
What are the two critical measures of a nation's economic health?
Question options:

income and spending

sales and taxes

wages and raises

production and income
Question 6        5 / 5 points
The value of all final goods and services produced during a given time period measures a nation's __________.
Question options:

gross domestic product

net national product

consumer price index

net exports
Question 7        5 / 5 points
Economists define the unemployed as individuals who are __________.
Question options:

not currently working

not currently working but are actively looking for work

working but looking for a different job

working less than their desired amount of time
Question 8        5 / 5 points
Which of the following would be a macroeconomic question?
Question options:

How have the retirement benefits in the auto industry changed over time?

How has inflation increased over time?

How has the price of gold increased over time?

How has the number of commercial airline flights decreased over time?
Question 9        5 / 5 points
If Sam does not have a job and is not looking for work, he is considered __________.
Question options:

unemployed and in the labor force

unemployed and not in the labor force

not in the labor force

unemployed
Question 10        5 / 5 points
If you negotiated a salary based on an anticipated inflation rate of 4 percent, and the actual inflation rate turned out to be 6 percent, __________.
Question options:

the purchasing power of your real wages would be more than you anticipated

your employer would have gained at your expense

your real wage will increase, but your nominal wage will decrease

the purchasing power of your wages will not change, since purchasing power is based on your nominal wage
Question 11        5 / 5 points
The labor supply and demand most directly affect the level of __________ in an economy.
Question options:

people attending colleges

people requiring retraining

employment

welfare benefits
Question 12        5 / 5 points
Macroeconomics __________.
Question options:

studies the behavior of individual consumers, firms, and markets

studies the behavior of the economy as a whole

involves the interaction between different countries in specific markets

studies how computer automation has changed economics
Question 13        5 / 5 points
The Consumer Price Index (CPI. differs from a chain-weighted price index in that the CPI __________.
Question options:

requires calculation of GDP, while the chain-weighted index does not

measures the costs of a typical fixed basket of goods over time, while the chain-weighted index does not

allows for the goods consumed in an economy to change over time, while the chain-weighted index does not

compares the prices of all goods in one year to the prices of all goods in other years
Question 14        5 / 5 points
The index most widely used by the government and the private sector to measure changes in the cost of living is the __________.
Question options:

Producer Price Index

Consumer Price Index

the GDP deflator

the chain-weighted price index
Question 15        5 / 5 points
Suppose the stock of capital remains constant. By adding more labor, perhaps a second work shift, output __________.
Question options:

decreases

increases

remains the same

becomes more costly
Question 16        5 / 5 points
Suppose that nominal GDP in year 1 is 200 and nominal GDP in year 2 is 242. Assume that inflation is 10 percent per year. How fast did the economy grow between these two years?
Question options:

10 percent

12 percent

21 percent

42 percent
Question 17        5 / 5 points
The circular flow is used to make the point that __________.
Question options:

rising prices never occur during times of unemployment

unemployment only occurs during a recession

production generates income

households purchase factors of production from firms
Question 18        5 / 5 points
The unemployment rate is the number of unemployed people __________.
Question options:

divided by the number of people who are working

divided by the total working-age population

divided by the sum of the number of people who are working and the number of people who are looking for work

and the number of people working fewer than their desired number of hours, divided by the number of people who are working or looking for work
Question 19        5 / 5 points
The largest component of GDP is __________.
Question options:

government spending

consumption expenditures

private investment expenditures

net exports
Question 20        5 / 5 points
We measure gross domestic product by multiplying the quantities of goods by their prices because it allows us to __________.
Question options:

express the values of products in a common unit of measurement

correct for inflation

directly compare the output of one economy to that of another

calculate the total number of units of goods produced in an economy




C11 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT.........objective questions

Question 1        5 / 5 points
If a competitive market operates perfectly, it relies on __________.
Question options:

the number of people buying goods

the laws of supply and demand

how many products can be produced for sale

how much people are willing to pay for the products
Question 2        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.6, which shows David's and Celeste's individual supply curves for flower arrangements per week. Assuming David and Celeste are the only producers in the market, what is the market quantity supplied at a price of $30?
Question options:

200

250

300

350
Question 3        5 / 5 points
The big tradeoff is the tradeoff between __________.
Question options:

quantity demanded and quantity supplied

price and quantity demanded

efficiency and equity

total surplus and deadweight loss
Question 4        5 / 5 points
A change in the quantity demanded of a product is the result of a change in __________.
Question options:

the price of the product

the price of related goods

consumer income

the cost of producing the product
Question 5        5 / 5 points
What happens if the price of a product is below the equilibrium price?
Question options:

The buyers will stop purchasing a "cheap" product.

The producer will lower the price to sell more product.

There will be an excess demand for the product.

There will be a surplus of the product.
Question 6        5 / 5 points
If the equilibrium price of a good increases and the equilibrium quantity of the good decreases, we can conclude that __________.
Question options:

demand increased

demand decreased

supply increased

supply decreased
Question 7        5 / 5 points
A supply curve is defined as the relationship between __________.
Question options:

the price of a good and the quantity that consumers are willing to buy

the price of a good and the quantity that producers are willing to sell

the income of consumers and the quantity of a product that consumers are willing to buy

the income of consumers and the quantity of a product that producers are willing to sell
Question 8        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.6, which shows David's and Celeste's individual supply curves for flower arrangements per week. Assuming David and Celeste are the only producers in the market, if the market quantity supplied is 50, the price must be __________.
Question options:

$0

$10

between $10 and $20

$30
Question 9        5 / 5 points
The market demand curve __________.
Question options:

shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity that all consumers together arewilling to buy

is drawn assuming that variables such as income and tastes are variable

is drawn assuming that the number of consumers is variable

is drawn assuming that the selling price is fixed
Question 10        5 / 5 points
When consumers are willing to buy more than producers are willing to sell, __________.
Question options:

there is excess supply of the product in the market

there is excess demand for the product in the market

the market is in equilibrium

the demand curve will shift until the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded
Question 11        5 / 5 points
When there is a change in the quantity demanded it means that __________.
Question options:

the hours the customer can buy products each day have increased

the number of products in inventory have increased

the quantity a consumer is willing to buy changes when the price changes

the selling price of the products has not changed
Question 12        5 / 5 points
Quantity of Frozen Latte-On-A-Stick Supplied
Price    Flo's Supply    Rita's Supply
1    0    0
2    0    3
3    4    6
4    9    9
5    15    12
Table 4.1

Refer to Table 4.1, which shows Flo's and Rita's individual supply schedules for frozen latte-on-a-stick. Assuming Flo and Rita are the only suppliers in the market, what is the market quantity supplied at a price of $2?
Question options:

0

2

3

5
Question 13        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.1, which shows Molly's and Ryan's individual demand curves for compact discs per month. Assuming Molly and Ryan are the only consumers in the market, what is the market quantity demanded at a price of $3?
Question options:

6

9

15

20
Question 14        5 / 5 points
When the price of apples goes up, __________.
Question options:

the demand for apples will decrease, ceteris paribus

the demand for apples will increase, ceteris paribus

the quantity of apples demanded will decrease, ceteris paribus

the quantity of apples demanded will increase, ceteris paribus
Question 15        5 / 5 points
A demand curve is defined as the relationship between __________.
Question options:

the price of a good and the quantity of that good that consumers are willing to buy

the price of a good and the quantity of that good that producers are willing to sell

the income of consumers and the quantity of a good that consumers are willing to buy

the income of consumers and the quantity of a good that producers are willing to sell
Question 16        5 / 5 points
 

Figure 4.2 illustrates the supply and demand for T-shirts. If the actual price of T-shirts is $7, there is an __________.
Question options:

excess demand of 8 T-shirts

excess supply of 8 T-shirts

excess demand of 10 T-shirts

excess supply of 10 T-shirts
Question 17        5 / 5 points
Suppose that the quantity of cars supplied exceeds the quantity of cars demanded. We would expect that __________.
Question options:

the price of cars will increase

the price of cars will decrease

the supply will increase (supply will shift to the right. to meet the demand

the demand will decrease (demand will shift to the left. to meet the supply
Question 18        5 / 5 points
If there is an advancement in the technology used to produce a product, what is the likely effect it may have on the supply?
Question options:

The company would not change its manufacturing.

More people would be needed to produce the product.

It would decrease the supply.

It would increase the supply.
Question 19        0 / 5 points
When demand increases and the demand curve shifts to the right, equilibrium price __________ and equilibrium quantity __________.
Question options:

increases; increases  (Incorrect)

increases; decreases

decreases; increases

decreases; decreases
Question 20        5 / 5 points
A change in quantity supplied of a product is the result of a change in __________.
Question options:

consumer income

the state of production technology

the cost of producing the product

the price of the product





C10 Online Exam 8_11 Score 100%............objective questions

Question-1
Which type of Windows updates below includes new features and extends the functionality of the operating system?
  A.  Critical
  B.  Optional
  C.  Recommended
  D.  Service Pack

Question 2 of 205.0 Points
Which of the events below would automatically create a new restore point on your Windows 8 computer?
  A.  Deleting the temporary files
  B.  Installing a new printer
  C.  Downloading music files
  D.  Creating a new Internet favourite

Question 3 of 205.0 Points
What is the primary limitation of free versions of antivirus applications?
  A.  They don't protect in real time.
  B.  They only perform quick scans.
  C.  They cannot scan the Windows directory.
  D.  They only install on 64-bit operating systems.

Question 4 of 205.0 Points
You have just purchased a brand new Windows 8 computer. What should you do right away with the Administrator account?
  A.  Disable it
  B.  Enable EFS for the account
  C.  Encrypt its logon
  D.  Change its username

Question 5 of 205.0 Points
Which selection below lists two operating systems that include BitLocker?
  A.  Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Professional
  B.  Vista Ultimate and Windows 8 Enterprise
  C.  Windows 7 Professional and Windows 8 Professional
  D.  Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 8 Professional

Question 6 of 205.0 Points
Which of the actions below will not create more room on your hard drive?
A.  Defragging your hard drive
  B.  Uninstalling an application
  C.  Deleting temporary Internet files
  D.  Deleting image and video files

Question 7 of 205.0 Points
Which of the instances below is an example of a Trojan horse?
  A.  An attachment in an email that is really a malicious file
  B.  A link in an email that downloads a virus
  C.  An executable file that replicates throughout the network
  D.  A computer game that creates a backdoor into your computer

Question 8 of 205.0 Points
Which type of Windows updates below is strictly security-related?
  A.  Critical
  B.  Optional
  C.  Recommended
  D.  Service Pack

Question 9 of 205.0 Points
You want to run CHKDSK and have it repair any errors it identifies, if possible. What is the command you would type?
  A.  CHKDSK /f
  B.  CHKDSK /r
  C.  CHKDSK /e
  D.  CHKDSK /RD

Question 10 of 205.0 Points
Which type of updates should be installed in a test environment before being installed in a live enterprise environment?
  A.  Recommended Updates
B.  regular and optional
  C.  Service Packs
  D.  Security updates

Question 11 of 205.0 Points
You are having trouble cleaning your computer for a troublesome virus. You decide to try to clean your computer while in safe mode. How do you access the menu to boot into safe mode?
  A.  Press the F5 key before the computer posts.
  B.  Press the F8 key before the computer posts.
C.  Press the F8 key after the computer posts.
  D.  Press the F9 key after the computer boots the operating system.

Question 12 of 205.0 Points
Which statement below is not true about EFS?
  A.  It can only be implemented on an NTFS partition.
  B.  It requires a user to type in a PIN.
  C.  It is supported by the Windows operating system.
  D.  It doesn't require TPM compatibility.

Question 13 of 205.0 Points
What is a limiting factor of EFS when compared to BitLocker?
  A.  It only works on 32-bit operating systems.
  B.  It only works with a public certificate.
  C.  It only works under the Administrator account.
  D.  It only works at the file or folder level.

Question 14 of 205.0 Points
How is a worm different from a virus?
  A.  It only targets the windows operating system.
  B.  It only monitors Internet behavior and is not malicious.
  C.  It doesn't require human intervention to spread.
  D.  It is only distributed through email messages.

Question 15 of 205.0 Points
Your computer is once again out of hard drive space and you want to see which folders are consuming the most space on your hard drive. Which application below will do this?
  A.  Ccleaner
  B.  TreeSize
  C.  MalwareBytes
  D.  Auslogics Disk Defrag

Question 16 of 205.0 Points
You install a new antivirus application on your computer and it keeps quarantining a legitimate application file in that application's directory. How can you prevent this from happening while still being able to protect your system?
  A.  Run the AV application in safe mode so the application is turned off.
B.  Create a custom scan and exclude the application's directory.
  C.  Run the AV application in defrag mode during all scans.
  D.  Exclude all .exe file types when scanning the computer.

Question 17 of 205.0 Points
You are configuring the local Windows Firewall on your Windows 7 computer. Which network category needs to have the most stringent rule set?
  A.  Public
  B.  Private
  C.  Home
  D.  Domain

Question 18 of 205.0 Points
You own a laptop with Windows 8 installed on it. How is someone able to access your files by installing another copy of Windows 8?
  A.  Use BitLocker with the new OS to copy and paste the files to a USB drive.
  B.  Use the Administrator account of the new OS to take ownership of the files.
  C.  Decrypt the files using the encryption key of the new OS on the system volume.
  D.  Decrypt the files using the newly installed certificate from the new OS.

Question 19 of 205.0 Points
You run a Defrag utility on your computer to see if you need to defrag your system volume. What fragmentation level represents a threshold at which point you need to defrag it?
A.  3%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  15%

Question 20 of 205.0 Points
In order for BitLocker to protect the System Volume without the aid of an external drive, your computer must:
A.  be 32-bit.
B.  host a virtualized enabled BIOS.
C.  be TPM-compatible.
D.  have a USB 3.0 interface.









H400 Thesis Revised

Requirement: Write a double-spaced, one-page outline that includes the thesis, major points, supporting points of evidence, and conclusio...