FP100T Week 3 Weekly Exam

Question 1
What is the function of the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau?

    It insures the money consumers have placed in large banks.
    It protects consumers from unfair or illegal lending.
    It sets the maximum interest rates that can be charged on credit cards.
    It establishes standard contracts for home equity loans.

Question 2
The legal document that specifies the terms and conditions of a consumer loan is the

    judgement
    lien
    promissory note
    trust agreement

Question 3
When real property is used as collateral to secure a loan, the lender records a __________ against the property.

    mortgage
    deed
    lien
    judgement

Question 4
Which of the following is not one of the situations that can defer student loan payments?

    Peace Corps service
    Postsecondary study
    Change in citizenship
    Economic hardship
   
Question 5
Payday lenders are controversial because they

    are in competition with traditional lenders.
    charge very high rates of interest.
    allow people cash their paychecks even when they do not have a bank account.
    make it easier for undocumented workers to stay in the job market.

Question 6
When you know that you cannot meet your debt obligations, you should

    contact your creditors directly to explain the situation.
    use alternative lenders such as payday lenders.
    declare bankruptcy as soon as possible.
    not contact your creditors because it will adversely affect your credit report.

Question 7
Negative credit information, with the exception of bankruptcies, must be removed from a credit report after __________ years.

    10
    5
    3
    7

Question 8
For borrowers who carry a balance on their credit cards, which of the following methods essentially gives the consumer free credit from the date of purchase until the beginning of the next billing cycle?

    Two-cycle average daily period
    Previous balance method
    Average daily balance method without a grace period
    Average daily balance method with a grace period

Question 9
In assessing a person's creditworthiness using the Five Cs of Credit, which of the following is applicable in the category of "capacity"?

    the amount of other debt the applicant already owes
    the credit score of the person applying for credit
    the income of the person applying for credit
    the value of the asset that will secure the loan

Question 10
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the APR on a credit card?

    (Average annual finance charges + Annual fee)/Average loan balance
    (Total annual finance charges + Annual fee)/Average loan balance
    Average annual finance charges/Average loan balance
    (Total annual finance charges – Annual fee)/Average loan balance

Question 11
The grace period is the period of time before

    a penalty will be assessed for late payment.
    the lender will increase the interest rate on the credit card.
    interest begins to accrue on new transactions.
    the balance is due in full.
(B or C is correct)

Question 12
The method most commonly used by financial institutions to determine finance charges on consumer loans is the

    discount interest method
    add-on interest method
    compound interest method
    simple interest method

Question 13
An interest rate on credit cards that is below the market rate and is offered to new customers is known as a(n) __________ rate.

    cash advance
    teaser
    temporary
    balance transfer

Question 14
Janelle is debating whether to buy or lease her favorite car. Under a closed-end lease, Janelle will

    be required to compensate the lessor for fluctuations in the resale value of the car at lease end.
    not be required to compensate the lessor for fluctuations in the resale value at lease end.
    be able to walk away from her lease no matter the condition of the car.
    have to purchase the car at lease-end.

Question 15
Which of the following statements is true of adjustable-rate mortgages?

    There is no limit as the amount of payment change on an ARM.
    The interest rate changes on ARMs are limited per year and per lifetime.
    They cannot be converted to fixed-rate loans.
    They generally carry higher initial interest rates than conventional mortgages.
(B or C is correct)

Question 16
Among other factors, the price a buyer is willing to pay for a house is a function of

    the family size of the buyer and the distance to work.
    the marital status of the buyer and years of employment.
    mortgage interest rates and the condition of real estate market.
    the credit rating of the buyer and the family size.

Question 17
When considering spending on housing needs, if a person is heavily immersed in credit card debt,

    credit card debt and housing needs are separate and should not be interlinked.
    it would be a good idea to save money by cutting on housing expenditures and paying down credit card debt first.
    the person should first satisfy housing needs and then focus on paying down credit card debt.
    the individual should continue to borrow against credit cards to maintain a roof over their head.

Question 18
The dealer's invoice price is the price that the dealer

    uses as the beginning negotiating price with the buyer.
    puts on a car after purchasing it from the manufacturer.
    uses when selling the car to a buyer.
    pays to purchase a new vehicle from the manufacturer.

Question 19
Compared with a 15-year mortgage at the same rate of interest, a 30-year mortgage will

    require payment of a mortgage insurance premium.
    result in less interest being paid over the life of the loan.
    result in more principal being repaid over the life of the loan.
    require a lower monthly payment.

Question 20
If a borrower wants to lower her monthly mortgage payments, she should

    negotiate a lower interest rate.
    extend the term of the loan.
    make a larger down payment.
    do all of these.

Question 21
If all else is equal, which of the following is LEAST likely to increase the price of the house you can afford to buy?

    increasing mortgage rates
    longer mortgage term
    improvement in your credit rating
    increase in your gross monthly salary

Question 22
Not having a long-term, fixed housing payment ________ a home.

    is both an advantage and disadvantage of renting
    are advantages of renting
    is a disadvantage of owning
    are disadvantages of renting

Question 23
In a home purchase, what are discount points?

    Interest paid up front by the buyer to the lender in return for a reduced annual interest rate.
    Interest paid up front to the lender in return for a reduced monthly mortgage payment.
    A reduction in the annual interest rate of the mortgage loan because the buyer made a higher-than-required down payment.
    A reduction in the closing costs due to the fact the buyer put up a large amount of earnest money.

Question 24
Generally, a person should consider leasing a car under a closed-end lease contract rather than purchase a new car if

    she wants to lower her monthly payments.
    she does not want to take the risk of residual value fluctuation.
    she does not drive a lot of miles annually.
    all of these are true.

Question 25
A lessee is a person who

    purchases property from another person, but sells it back after a period of time.
    sells property to another person with the intention of purchasing it back after a period of time.
    pays money for the privilege of using someone else's property for a period of time.
    owns property and charges someone money to use that property for a period of time.

FP100T Week 2 WileyPlus Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
A budget variance occurs when your actual expenses are ______ than your budgeted expenses.
    less
    more
    different
    all of the above

Question 2
Which of the following pays interest that is exempt from state and local taxation?

    certificate of deposit
    NOW account
    series EE bond
    inflation.

Question 3
If you write a check or use your debit card when there isn't enough money in your account to cover the payment, this is known as

    being unbanked.
    skimming.
    a stop payment.
    an overdraft.

Question 4
Sophie wrote a check to a contractor who did not complete the job. She would like to make sure the contractor is unable to cash her check. She should go to her financial institution and request a(n)

    overdraft protection.
    stop payment.
    wire transfer.
    police report.

Question 5
A money market mutual fund is a mutual fund that invests in

    stocks of the 500 largest companies in the United States.
    investment quality corporate bonds.
    short-term, low risk financial assets such as short-term government bonds.
long-term certificates of deposit.

Question 6
You have invested $1,000 in an account that promises APY of 3 percent per year. Assuming you leave the original investment and all earned interest in the account, and ignoring taxes, how long will it take to double your money?

    72 years
    24 years
    12 years
    4.16 years

Question 7
A savings account that pays a stated rate of interest if you agree to leave your money on deposit for a certain period of time is known as a

mutual fund.
    series EE fund.
    certificate of deposit.
    money market account.
Question 8
For an account that compounds interest more often than once per year, the annual percentage yield will be

    greater than the stated nominal yield.
    less than the stated nominal yield.
    equal to the stated nominal yield.
    either greater than or less than the stated nominal yield, depending on the current interest rate environment

Question 9
Which of the following types of accounts is not insured for $250,000 by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)?

    savings account at a commercial bank
    money market mutual fund offered by an insurance company
    checking account at an online bank
    savings account at a savings and loan association

Question 10
Credit unions are a unique type of depository institution because credit unions

are primarily mortgage lenders.
    tend to charge higher fees than commercial banks.
    are nonprofit.
    are insured by FDIC.

Question 11
Simone spent an average of $500 each month on groceries last year for herself and her family. She is now forecasting the family budget for next year. She read that an inflation rate of 5% is expected. How much should Simone budget for the monthly food expense next year?

    $500
    $525
    $750
    $475

Question 12
A ________ is an investment company that sells shares to investors and then invests the pool of funds in stocks, bonds, or other assets.

    mutual fund
    life insurance company
    brokerage firm
    credit union

Question 13
Which of the following tax credits best applies to a low-income person contributing to an IRA?

    lifetime learning credit
    retirement savings contribution credit
    child tax credit
    American Opportunity credit

Question 14
To calculate taxable income, which of the following must be subtracted from adjusted gross income?

    adjustments to income
    tax credits
    FICA payroll tax
    personal exemptions
Question 15
___________ taxes are used to finance Social Security and Medicare.

    FSSA
    FICA
    SIS
    FDIC
Question 16
Which of the following tax credits best applies to a parent of an undergraduate freshman?

    retirement savings contribution credit
    American Opportunity credit
    lifetime learning credit
    child tax credit

Question 17
Jim and Judy file taxes jointly as a married couple. They have a combined adjusted gross income of $97,651. They can claim two exemptions of $4,000 each. Their Schedule A itemized expenses are as follows: Interest on home mortgage, $11,986; Property taxes on home, $3,762; Total medical expenses, $1,345; and Charitable contributions, $900. What is their taxable income?

$71,648
    $73,903
    $81,003
    $73,003

Question 18
To which of the following does the marginal tax rate apply?
    last dollar of income
next dollar of income
    no dollars of income
    first dollar of income

Question 19
Your average tax rate will always be _______ your marginal rate.

    the difference between your taxable income and
    more than
    the same as
    less than or equal to

Question 20
Which of the following must be included in total income on federal income tax returns?

    child support received
    tips and bonuses
    worker's compensation benefits
    insurance claim payments

Question 21
Which of the following is the formula for calculating the average tax rate?

    taxes paid/taxable income
    taxes paid/ adjusted gross income
    taxable income/taxes paid
    adjusted gross income/ taxes paid

Question 22
If you made a mistake on last year's tax return, you would file a

    W4.
    1040A.
    1099.
    1040X.
    1040EZ

Question 23
The reduction in taxes owed as a result of a financial decision is known as the

    average tax effect.
    progressive tax effect.
    opportunity cost
    marginal tax effect.

Question 24
What is the FICA payroll tax used to pay for?
    neither Social Security nor Medicare
    Social Security
    both Social Security and Medicare
    Medicare

Question 25
Which of the following is an expense that is subtracted from total income to arrive at adjusted gross income?

    child care tax credit
    lottery winnings
    individual retirement account contributions up to the legal limit
    long-term capital gains

HW-331 Principles of Management Proctored Final

Principles of Management Proctored Final

Part-A

1.       Three kinds of basic management skills have been identified—conceptual, human
relations, and technical. Explain the nature of each of these three skills.

2. With respect to organization and control, Victor Vroom developed the expectancy
approach. Explain the expectancy model in terms of Vroom's concepts of expectancy,
instrumentality, and valence. What can managers do to improve employee motivation
in light of the Vroom model?

3. What is required to implement an organization's commitment to social responsibility?
What are the main obstacles to implementing socially responsible policies? Name
specific actions that can be taken toward increased social responsibility.

Part-B

1. Briefly define a transactional leader.

 2. Explain the term leniency, central tendency, and recency as they relate to conducting appraisal interviews

3. In the context of organizational development, what is sensitivity training?

4. What is strategic management and what three stages are involved?

5. What is the difference between group norm and group cohesiveness? Give simply examples of each concept

6. In the context of communication, what is perception?

7. What is the difference between line and staff functions? Give an example of each

8. What is the basic idea in equity theory?

9. Define the term six sigma

10. Briefly summarize Simon's principle of bounded rationality as it applies to satisfying

 

MKTG310 Discussion 2

Chapter 5 Question 4:

Which market entry has the least risk? Why? Provide and explain in detail a marketer who uses this strategy.

 

Response 1

Q. Identify 3 current demographic trends. Explain in detail how each trend is important to marketing managers.

Response 2

When the U.S. dollar is strong against the euro, how does this impact U.S. trade with Europe? Europe trade with the U.S.?

 

MKTG310 Discussion 1

Chap 2 Q 1: Explain in detail the market penetration strategy. Describe in detail one company that practices this strategy.

MKTG305 Unit 3 Story

Assignment Details

 Find two or three articles in the library that encompass one of the following marketing topics:

 Controversy in ads

Lifestyle campaigns

Target marketing

The global view

Emotional advertising

Marketing the economy

Devise your own story that fits in one of the categories listed. Stories should be 250–350 words in length and can be written in first or third person.

 

MKTG201 Week 8 Final Project

Assignment Instructions

Hi Colleagues,

Final Project: Covers chapters 1 through chapters 16

 In this course on the Fundamentals of Marketing, we learned about a variety of elements/components of business and marketing that contribute to the marketing and promotion of products.  The underlying purpose of these activities is to achieve a return on investment or sales, which should result in profit for companies and businesses.  Your final assignment has two parts.

Part 1

Discuss what a marketing plan is and describe the different components of the marketing plan in your own words (see figure 16.2 in the text). Also explain how the marketing plan is helpful to the organization. You do not have to put together a marketing plan for this assignment

Part 2

Please take the elements/components you have learned in this course (such as the SWOT, goals/objectives, etc.) and translate/apply them into how they would be carried out into the execution of a marketing strategy.

For instance (note that these examples may not be used in your assignment):

In a SWOT analysis you determined that one of the strengths of a company was that weekly team meetings were held where ideas are exchanged and commendations are awarded to team members who have met or exceeded goals or expectations for the week.  How can we translate or incorporate that Strength into a marketing strategy?

Since the ideas being exchanged in the weekly meeting are to foster growth and innovation, camaraderie, excitement, and motivation, they can also be used to generate new ideas for promotion.  This weekly team meeting can be leveraged to spur perhaps a name of a new product that company X has been trying to launch for considerable amount of time but just haven't thought of the right one.

A real world example, Lays Potato Chips reached out to the general public using their social media strength to ask them to come up with a new flavor of potato chip. This combined the strengths the company had with the need to execute a new marketing strategy. Through this process, a consumer won $1mm for coming up with a new potato chip flavor, and Lay's of course won tons of new customers and multiple millions in sales of new product.

 

MKTG201 Week 7 Quiz SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1 of 10
10.0 Points
Salespeople act on behalf of their companies by doing which of the following?

    A. Managing relationships
    B. Relaying customer and market information back to their organizations
    C. Creating value for their firms' customers
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above

Question 2 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following, according to the e-book, are NOT types of order getters; that is, they actively seek to make sales by calling on customers.

    A. Missionary Sales people
B. Sales support
    C. Trade Sales people
    D. Prospectors
    E. Account Managers

Question 3 of 10
10.0 Points
The process of asking questions to identify a buyer's problems and needs and then tailoring a sales pitch to satisfy those needs is called ________________.

    A. consultative selling
    B. strategic-partner selling
    C. needs-satisfaction selling
    D. none of the above

Question 4 of 10
10.0 Points
Common Ethical Issues for Salespeople

Which of the following are the most common ethical issues facing salespeople?

    A. A customer asking for information about one of their competitors, who happens to be one of your customers
    B. Deciding to play golf on a nice day, since no one knows if you are actually at work or not
    C. A buyer asking for something special, which you could easily provide, but aren't supposed to give away
    D. Deciding how much to spend on holiday season gifts for your customers
    E. All of the above

Question 5 of 10
10.0 Points
____________ is the process of identifying and qualifying leads in order to grow new business

    A. Lead scoring
    B. Blog newsletters
    C. White papers
    D. Lead management
    E. None of the above

Question 6 of 10
10.0 Points
_________ are salespeople who are not employees of the company. They set their own hours, determine their own activities, and for the most part, manage themselves.

    A. Manufacturer's representative
    B. Spiffs
    C. Distributors
    D. Independent agents
    E. None of the above

Question 7 of 10
10.0 Points
___________ is a catchall phrase for the online channels of communication that build communities

    A. Direct marketing through e-mails
    B. Web advertising
    C. Social media
    D. Web publishing
    E. None of the above

Question 8 of 10
10.0 Points
Loyalty has two dimensions. One dimension of loyalty is customer loyalty, meaning that the customer buys the product regularly and does not respond to competitors' offerings.

A. True
B. False

Question 9 of 10
10.0 Points
Customer satisfaction is typically defined as the feeling that a person experiences when an offering meets his or her expectations
A. True
B. False

Question 10 of 10
10.0 Points
The CAN-SPAM Act prohibits the use of e-mail, faxes, and other technology to randomly push a message to a potential consumer
A. True
B. False

MKTG201 Week 7 Assignment 7

Assignment 7

Are you especially loyal to any one brand? If so, what is it and why are you so loyal? When successfully building loyalty and community, trust seems to be the biggest factor. How can a company build trust and what is the best approach to do so (incorporating concepts from both the field of marketing and psychology)? What are the ethical issues and obligations that come with trust once it is built? Should consumers trust companies? Why or why not? Do you think some consumers are just more prone to be loyal to companies and other consumers are not? Why or why not? 

MKTG201 Week 6 Assignment 6

Assignment 6

There are two parts to this assignment.

Part 1: Try to remember the billboards on your commute to work or school. How many do you think there are? Explain why you remembered any of them. Next time you are on that route, note how many billboards there actually are. Are they effective?

Part 2--You've been asked to create a new social media networking site. What would you name the site and what would you suggest to make it better than existing sites?

 

MKTG201 Week 5 Assignment 5

Assignment 5

Would you like to own an all-electric car? Do you think there is a viable market for such a product?

Provide secondary data to research the viability of selling electric cars profitably. Utilize some of the sources mentioned in chapter 10 of our e-book. Try to determine the population of electric-car buyers.

Provide a research report based on your findings.

 

MKTG201 Week 4 Midterm Exam

Mid Term: Covers chapters 1 through chapters 7

For the Mid-term you will create a new product and provide how you would market your product. You will need to provide information on how your product is superior to your competitions product.

1) Define and explain each of the following tools/concepts below.  

• The strategic planning process
• S.W.O.T
• Market Segmenting
• Target Marketing
• Product Positioning
• Offerings: —product, price, and service.

2) Use two or more of the concepts from part 1 in your product assessment.

3) Analyze security, privacy, ethical, and legal issues related to the digital information world and marketing

MKTG201 Week 3 Quiz

Question 1 of 10
10.0 Points
Your marketing target analysis does not have to include which of the following:

    A. Identifying and analyzing the relevant purchasing organizations and people
    B. Collecting and analyzing relevant data regarding the demographics and psychographics of the targeted segments
    C. Identifying payment terms used by the targeted organizations and consumers
    D. Developing appropriate action programs to reach the targeted segments

Question 2 of 10
10.0 Points
Which one of the following is not a demographic base for segmentation?

    A. Education
    B. Occupation
    C. Religion
    D. Personality

Question 3 of 10
10.0 Points
Is the following statement true or false. Your Target market is the segment/group of people you choose to not sell to.
A. True
B. False

Question 4 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following are types of Segmentation Bases?

    A. Geographic segmentation
    B. Psychographic segmentation
    C. Demographic segmentation
    D. Behavioral segmentation
E. All of the above

Question 5 of 10
10.0 Points
Behavioral segmentation

    A. is segmenting buyers by personal characteristics such as age, income, ethnicity and nationality, education, occupation, religion, social class, and family size
    B. refers to the stages families go through over time and how it affects people's buying behavior.
    C. divides people and organization into groups according to how they behave with or act toward products

Question 6 of 10
10.0 Points
Multisegment Marketing Strategy

    A. is a new effort to isolate markets and target them.
    B. involves targeting an even more select group of consumers.
    C. involves targeting a very select group of customers.
    D. can allow firms to respond to demographic changes and other trends in markets.
    E. None of the above

Question 7 of 10
10.0 Points
Is the following statement true or false.

Firms that compete in the global marketplace can use any combination of the segmenting strategies or none at all.
A. True
B. False

Question 8 of 10
10.0 Points
Targeting Strategies Used in Global Markets consist of the following.

    A. Multisegmenting Marketing
    B. Concentrated Marketing
    C. Targeted Marketing
D. All of the above
    E. None of the above

Question 9 of 10
10.0 Points
Positioning is

    A. is a two-dimensional graph that visually shows where your product stands, or should stand, relative to your competitors, based on criteria important to buyers.
    B. is how consumers perceive a product relative to the competition.
    C. is a catchphrase designed to sum up the essence of a product.
    D. is an effort to "move" a product to a different place in the minds of consumers
    E. None of the above

Question 10 of 10
10.0 Points
Is the following statement true of false. Repositioning is an effort to "move" a product to a different place in the minds of consumers.

A. True
B. False

MKTG201 Week 3 Asignment

Describe a product you like that you believe more people should purchase. As a marketer, how would you reposition the product in the customer's mind to increase its purchase? Outline your strategy. Create a new tagline for this product.

 

MKTG201 Week 2 Quiz SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1 of 10
10.0 Points
Which one of the following are not one of the "Big Five" personality traits?

    A. opennes
    B. enthusiastic
    C. conscientiousness
    D. neuroticism
    E. none of the above

Question 2 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following factors influence consumers' buying behavior

    A. Social Situation
    B. Time
    C. Reason for the Purchase
    D. Mood
E. All of the above

Question 3 of 10
10.0 Points
________ is how you interpret the world around you and make sense of it in your brain.

A. Perception
    B. Motivation
    C. Consumer attitudes
    D. Internal influences
    E. None of the above
Question 4 of 10
10.0 Points
What is the first Stage in the Consumer's Purchasing Process

    A. Search for Information
B. Need Recognition
    C. Product Evaluation
    D. Supplier specification analysis
    E. None of the above

Question 5 of 10
10.0 Points
Which of the following are types of B2B buyers?

    A. Governments
    B. Resellers
    C. Producers
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above

Question 6 of 10
10.0 Points
Which one of the following is not someone who provides their firms' buyers with input

    A. Initiators
    B. Users
    C. Buyers
    D. Influencers
    E. None of the above
Question 7 of 10
10.0 Points
Derived demand is

    A. when the demand for one product increases the demand for another.
    B. demand that springs from, or is derived from, a source other than the primary buyer of a product.
    C. a small change in demand by consumers that can have a big effect throughout the businesses
    D. None of the above

Question 8 of 10
10.0 Points
Is the following statement true or false.

B2B markets firms in the same industry tend to cluster in the same geographic areas.
A. True
B. False

Question 9 of 10
10.0 Points
Planned obsolescence is

    A. A. when they already have some information about a good or service but continue to search for a little more information.
    B. B. certain characteristics that are important to you such as the price of the backpack, the size, the number of compartments, and color
    C. C. a deliberate effort by companies to make their products obsolete, or unusable, after a period of time.
    D. D. developing appropriate action programs to reach the targeted segments.
    E. None of the above

Question 10 of 10
10.0 Points
Is the following statement true or false.

Companies that sell to the government must, by law, follow very strict ethical guidelines.
A. True
B. False

MKTG201 Week 2 Assignment 2

Assignment Instructions

Assignment Two

Chapter 3 & 4

Motivation is the inward drive we have to get what we need. In the mid-1900s, Abraham Maslow, an

American psychologist, developed the hierarchy of needs shown in Figure 3.4.

1. Select two advertisements and describe the needs identified by Abraham Maslow that each ad addresses.

2. Analyze the advertisement using the concepts of marketing and consumer segmentation, and discuss how it aligns to the organization's mission.

3. Find an international version of an advertisement for one of the products.

4. What differences do you detect in the international version of the ad?  How did the underlying aspects of marketing and psychology utilized in the advertisement change? 

 

MKTG201 Week 1 Assignment 1 Score 99 PERCENT

Compare and contrast a four Ps approach to marketing versus the value approach (creating, communicating, and delivering value). Select and examine these approaches for at least one routine and non-routine problem.  What would you expect to be the same and what would you expect to be different between two companies that apply one or the other approach? 

MKT571 Final Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms so as to place the marketing function on a more equal footing with the functions performed by other C-level executives.
Select the correct answer

marketing manager

chief information officer

finance manager

chief marketing officer

Question 2
In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing materials into the business.
Select the correct answer

operations

technology development

marketing

inbound logistics

Question 3
Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?
Select the correct answer

    Suppliers in business markets are often expected to customize their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers, whereas suppliers in consumer markets are seldom expected to do so.

    Purchasing decisions in business markets are made by the end user, whereas purchasing decisions in consumer markets are made by a buying committee.

    In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is significantly affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not significantly affected by price changes.

    In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, whereas in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.

Question 4
__________ divides the market into units such as nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.
Select the correct answer

Geographic segmentation

    Demographic segmentation

    Psychographic segmentation

    Behavioral segmentation

Question 5
______ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require.
Select the correct answer

    Full market coverage

    Multiple segment specialization

    Single-segment concentration

    Individual marketing

Question 6
__________ refers to the activity of designing a company's product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.
Select the correct answer

    Targeting

    Segmentation

    Positioning

    Customization

Question 7
A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:
Select the correct answer

engage the right customers in the right way.

prohibit customers from innovating products without its consent.

focus solely on its lead users.

allow all its customers to participate in the product-design process.

Question 8
In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?
Select the correct answer

    Decline

    Maturity

    Growth

 Introduction

Question 9
A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a ________________.
Select the correct answer

theme

pattern

style

trend

Question 10
Which of the following best describes the term product system?
Select the correct answer

    It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.

    It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.

    It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.

    It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.

Question 11
Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?
Select the correct answer

    A sharing economy is primarily the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.

    An organization's trust and reputation have little role in determining its place in a sharing economy.

    Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that form part of a sharing-related business.

    In a sharing economy, an individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.

Question 12
__________ is the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.
Select the correct answer

    Determining demand

    Selecting a price method

    Estimating cost

    Selecting the price objective

Question 13
Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product but neither take title to goods nor engage in the negotiation of purchases or sales are called ________.
Select the correct answer

agents

facilitators

merchants

jobbers

Question 14
Which of the following statements is true of personal communications channels?
Select the correct answer

Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.

    They include public relations, advertising, and sales promotions.

    They are often less effective than mass communication channels.

    Their influence on purchase decisions is significant when products are purchased frequently.

Question 15
__________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate to them about new products or new features of existing products.
Select the correct answer

Informative advertising

    Persuasive advertising

    Reminder advertising

    Reinforcement advertising

Question 16
When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a ________.
Select the correct answer

family brand

master brand

sub-brand

parent brand

Question 17
____________ is the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.
Select the correct answer

    Customer relationship management

    Product modification

    Enterprise resource planning

    Customer cloning

Question 18
The marketing department of StyleWheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to the launch of a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?
Select the correct answer

    Shareholder value

Customer awareness

    Market share

    Perceived quality

Question 19
Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm's marketing efforts?
Select the correct answer

    Perceived quality

    Market share

    Customer awareness

    Sales turnover

Question 20
__________ refers to the capacity to satisfy humanity's needs without harming future generations.
Select the correct answer

    Durability

    Accountability

 Sustainability

    Profitability

Question 21
The __________ encompasses the actors engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.
Select the correct answer

task environment

demographic environment

natural environment

legal environment

Question 22
The __________ refers to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm's budget.
Select the correct answer

customer relationship management process

customer acquisition process

new-offering realization process

fulfillment management process

Question 23
Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:
Select the correct answers

    in business markets, a marketer typically deals with several smaller buyers.

    the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.

    in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.

    buying decisions in business markets are subject to multiple influences.

Question 24
Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers clothes that suit the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company's products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?
Select the correct answer

Geographic segmentation

    Demographic segmentation

    Psychographic segmentation

    Behavioral segmentation

Question 25
A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:
Select the correct answer

it wants to appeal to multiple market segments.

it wants to customize its products for each consumer.

the market shows several natural segments.

all consumers have roughly the same wants and preferences.

Question 26
A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should purchase a product or service.
Select the correct answer

value network

project objective

value proposition

mission statement

Question 27
__________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.
Select the correct answer

    Attribute listing

    Morphological analysis

    Mind mapping

Reverse-assumption analysis

Question 28
__________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.
Select the correct answer

    Introduction

    Growth

    Decline

    Maturity

Question 29
Which of the following statements is true of fads?
Select the correct answer

    They have a long acceptance cycle.

    They tend to win over only a limited following.

    They usually satisfy a strong customer need.

    They last for several generations.

Question 30
The width of a company's product mix refers to:
Select the correct answer

    the total number of items in the product mix.

    the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.

    the number of different product lines carried by the company.

the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.

T05K Assignment 4

Assignment 04

T05 Criminal Behavior

Directions:  Be sure to make an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4)pages in length; refer to the "Assignment Format" page for specific format requirements.

 

Discuss the major principles of the biosocial theories of criminal causation. Then explain the Human Genome Project (HGP). Finally, discuss criticisms that have been waged against the biosocial theories of criminal causation.

 

BUSI504 Week 8 Final Exam Score 96 PERCENT

Question 1 (2 points)
 In a high context culture, people look for meaning in what is not said.
Question 1 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 2 (2 points)

Negotiation is an integral skill for managers.
Question 2 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 3 (2 points)

Meetings are an effective way to make announcements and disseminate information.
Question 3 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 4 (2 points)

Behavioral questions are the least useful type to ask during employment interviews.
Question 4 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 5 (2 points)

Among the persuasion variables that are associated with the speaker, the most significant variable is the speaker's credibility.
Question 5 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 6 (2 points)

The visual elements in a document may contradict the text and cause confusion.
Question 6 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 7 (2 points)

The best way to ensure clarity in a presentation is to write a detailed outline.
Question 7 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 8 (2 points)

Normal gift-giving practices in some countries are considered unethical in others.
Question 8 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 9 (2 points)

The maximum supportable outcome (MSO) and the least acceptable outcome (LAO) are guideposts for negotiations that should be considered flexible.
Question 9 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 10 (2 points)

Conflict develops due to perceived mutually exclusive goals.
Question 10 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 11 (2 points)

Audiences are more likely to remember a speaker's delivery style than the content of the presentation.
Question 11 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 12 (2 points)

The essential aim of informational meetings is to communicate a company point of view and have it accepted by employees.
Question 12 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 13 (2 points)

Decisions decrease in quality when conflicts are involved.
Question 13 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 14 (2 points)

Directed questions are effective as persuasion tools.
Question 14 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 15 (2 points)

In the United States, the accepted practice in negotiations is to begin with a general conversation on neutral topics.
Question 15 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 16 (2 points)


Negative space suggests sloppy or lazy design, and should be filled with text or graphics.
Question 16 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 17 (2 points)

Unlike in other types of meetings, members of staff meetings are not expected to share information.
Question 17 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 18 (2 points)

Managers generally focus on facts rather than opinions during an interview in order to make decisions regarding interviewees.
Question 18 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 19 (2 points)

It's been estimated that 20 percent of American managers fail to perform adequately abroad because they haven't been sufficiently prepared for adjusting to the foreign culture.
Question 19 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 20 (2 points)

Unclear business goals, time pressure, and uncomfortable work environments are all factors correlated with workplace conflict.
Question 20 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 21 (5 points)
 Perceived conflict is present when the parties
Question 21 options:
1) recognize the conditions
2) misunderstand one another's true position
3) have the same interests
4) both 1 and 2 are correct
Question 22 (5 points)
 "Tell me about yourself" is what type of question?
Question 22 options:
1) behavioral
2) leading
3) open
4) directed
Question 23 (5 points)
 ________________ are titles and subtitles within the body of a document that divide material into comprehensible segments by highlighting the main topics and signaling topic changes.
Question 23 options:
1) Headings
2)     Headers
3)     Captions
4)     Legends

Question 24 (5 points)
"Culture" includes
Question 24 options:
1)     religious systems
2)     educational systems
3)     political systems
4)     all choices are correct

Question 25 (5 points)
The interview format that is suitable for most situations that managers face is the _________
interview.
Question 25 options:
   
1)     structured
2)     semi-structured
3)     mini-structured
4)     unstructured

Question 26 (5 points)

Which of the following is a communication principle that should be used in applying a win-win conflict resolution strategy?
Question 26 options:
1)     use emotional rather than neutral terms
2)     make absolute statements
3)     ask closed-ended questions
4)     repeat key phrases for understanding

Question 27 (5 points)
Which conflict-resolution strategy is closest to negotiation?
Question 27 options:
   
1)     forcing
2)     avoiding
3)     problem-solving
4)     compromising

Question 28 (5 points)
Which of the following uses a questionnaire that elicits the participants' opinions on a topic?
Question 28 options:
1)     nominal group technique
2)     Delphi technique
3)     group decision support system
4)     brainstorming

Question 29 (5 points)

When emphasizing an important or primary point, the speaker should ________________
Question 29 options:
   
1)     slow down
2)     speed up
3)     pace back and forth
4)     nod repeatedly

Question 30 (5 points)

Which is not an advantage of working in a team?
Question 30 options:
1)     A group decision may be of a higher quality than that made by an individual
2)     It provides a welcome break from routine independent tasks
3)     Group members are more likely to be committed to the information presented
4)     It may reduce the chance of communication problems

Question 31 (5 points)
 According to Dr. Anne Grinols, ethical persuasion requires analyzing the audience's ______ ____________
Question 31 options:
1)     relationships and knowledge
2)     attitudes and beliefs
3)     age and education level
4)     driving forces and restraining forces

Question 32 (5 points)
Which layer of the strategic communication model is relevant to negotiation?
Question 32 options:
1)     the first layer
2)     the second layer
3)     the third layer
4)     all of the above choices are correct

Question 33 (5 points)
Asking a meeting member to play "devil's advocate" is a strategy for ________________
Question 33 options:
1)     keeping the meeting short
2)     avoiding groupthink
3)     encouraging harmony
4)     strengthening leadership

Question 34 (5 points)
Although likely to cause later conflicts, which conflict-resolution strategy is the most commonly used by managers?
Question 34 options:
1) forcing
2) avoidance
3) accommodating
4) compromise

Question 35 (5 points)

The idea that under the skin, all human beings are alike, brothers and sisters in the common family of man is known as the:
Question 35 options:
1)     universality myth
2)     global village concept
3)     commonality village
4)     objectivity myth

Question 36 (5 points)

The most pervasive communication barrier in workplace interviews is
Question 36 options:
   
1)     perception
2)     bias
3)     fact-inference confusion
4)     organizational status

Question 37 (5 points)

Which of the following roles do visual elements play in a document?
Question 37 options:
1)     set a tone
2)     provide additional information
3)     reinforce the text
4)     all of the above

Question 38 (5 points)

When negotiating, which factors must be kept in balance?
Question 38 options:
1)     the relationship, the goal, and the organization
2)     the past, the present, and the future
3)     the methods, the tactics, and the strategy
4)     all of the above choices are correct
Question 39 (5 points)

Which of the following is the best sequence of topics for an informative presentation about a change in procedures?
Question 39 options:
1)     comparison and contrast
2)     spatial
3)     chronological
4)     economic

Question 40 (5 points)
 Why should managers become culturally sensitive?
Question 40 options:
1) the workforce is increasingly more culturally diverse
2) they are working in a global economy
3) US business values are universal
4) both 1 and 2 are correct

 

Question 41 (8 points)

 

What is NGT? What is its value for group decision-making?

Question 42

What are the "building blocks" of document design for managerial communication and what purpose do they serve in your document?

Question 43

Define MSO (maximum supportable outcome) and LAO (least acceptable outcome) in a negotiation. Give an example of each in the context of negotiating the price of a new vehicle with an auto dealer.

Question 44

Provide a brief example of either generational or gender-based differences in communication styles.

Question 45

What should a manager do to prepare for an assignment in another country?

Question 46

Collective bargaining between an employer and a union representing employees is also known as what type of negotiation?

Question 47

Describe one way conflict can benefit an organization.

Audience analysis is a key activity during presentation preparation. What are some elements?

Question 49

What is meant by BFOQ?  What is its relevance to employment interviews, performance appraisals, and disciplinary interviews?

Question 50

List and describe the six competencies of Emotional Intelligence identified by Daniel Goleman.

BUSI504 Week 3 Dropbox Assignment 1

Read Case 2-4, "Resigning From the TV Station," on pp. 50-51 of the text. After you have read the case, prepare an essay answering Questions 1-4 at the end of the case. Your answers to the questions should be original, thoughtful, and well-reasoned, demonstrating your insight regarding the case and the questions presented. Your essay should be between 4-6 pages in length, double-spaced, using a 12-point Times New Roman or similar business font. You should answer the questions in the order presented. Style, and any use of citations, should follow the 6th edition of the APA Manual.

 

Resigning From the TV Station

 Jane Rye is a student of advertising at the local state university and will graduate at the end of the next term. She has a part-time job in the sales department at a local television station. When hired, Rye thought she was very lucky to have a job there, not only for the money but also for the work experience. Pat Trent, the sales manager who hired her, was Rye's immediate supervisor. Rye was doing a very good job and received considerable support from Trent. In fact, the sales manager had nothing but praise for Rye's work when reporting to top management. Trent often told her direct report that her work was exceptional and Trent would like to hire her on a permanent basis after graduation to head a new media research department for the station. The job seemed to promise a challenging and rewarding career. While Rye was flattered by the offer, she was not interested in the position because she found her present job unsatisfying. However, she never told Trent her feelings about the job or the possible appointment. Because Trent had trained Rye and had promoted her to everyone, Rye had become very loyal and grateful to her sales manager. Thus, Rye thought she would betray Trent if she were to refuse the job. After six weeks, however, Rye decided to quit and work part-time at the university, but she did not know how to approach her boss. Rye, feeling unable to say anything unpleasant to Trent, let time pass until the day she was ready to quit to start her new job. When Rye got to work that day, the sales manager was scheduled to leave town later that morning. Rye was forced to go into Trent's office while two other people were there discussing another matter. Trent asked Rye what she wanted, and Rye replied, "I am resigning." The sales manager was taken completely by surprise, asked Rye why she was resigning, and wondered what was to be done with the project Rye was handling. Rye apologized for such short notice. Rye explained that she was taking a part-time job at the school starting tomorrow. Trent, very disappointed in her direct report, said, "If you had told me sooner, I could have transferred the project to someone else—now I'm in a bind."

 

Questions

How should Rye have handled her resignation?

Where, when, and how do you think Rye should have resigned? Do you think Trent would have understood under different circumstances?

How did Trent foster Rye's reluctance to communicate?

What are some possible long-term repercussions of the way Rye handled her resignation?

 

 

BUSI531 Week 2 Quiz SCORE 100 PERCENT

Quiz
Question 1 (2 points)
 In the needs assessment process, organizational analysis deals with identifying:
Question 1 options:
1)     The training resources that are available.
2)     Employees' personal characteristics.
3)     The conditions under which tasks are performed.
4)     The employees who require training.

Question 2 (2 points)
Employees' readiness for training includes identifying whether:
Question 2 options:
1)     An organization's work environment will facilitate learning and not interfere with performance.
2)     An organization should develop training programs by itself or if it should buy them from a vendor or a consulting firm.
3)     Peers' and managers' attitudes and behaviors toward the employees are supportive.
4)     Managers are using a similar frame of reference when they evaluate associates using same competencies.

Question 3 (2 points)
____ refers to the process of a company using information about other companies' training practices.
Question 3 options:
1)     Brainstorming
2)     Crowdsourcing
3)     Outsourcing
4)     Benchmarking

Question 4 (2 points)
_____ refers to asking a large group of employees to help provide information for needs assessment that they are not traditionally asked to do.
Question 4 options:
1)     Crowdsourcing
2)     Historical data review
3)     Focus group
4)     Benchmarking

Question 5 (2 points)
_____ are useful with complex or controversial issues that one person may be unable or unwilling to explore.
Question 5 options:
1)     Questionnaires
2)     Observations
3)     Focus groups
4)     Historical data reviews

Question 6 (2 points)
Which of the following method of needs assessment is inexpensive and allows the collection of data from a large number of persons?
Question 6 options:
1)     Questionnaire
2)     Observation
3)     Focus group
4)     Interview

Question 7 (2 points)
_____ are more concerned with how training may affect the attainment of financial goals for the particular units they supervise.
Question 7 options:
1)     Operational workers
2)     Instructional designers
3)     Mid-level managers
4)    Upper-level managers

Question 8 (2 points)
_____ analysis involves determining the appropriateness of training, given the company's business strategy, its resources available for training, and support by managers and peers for training activities.
Question 8 options:
1)    Organizational
2)     Task
3)    Gap
4)     Value-chain

Question 9 (2 points)
_____ involves determining whether performance deficiencies result from lack of knowledge or skills.
Question 9 options:
1)    Organizational analysis
2)     Person analysis
3)     Gap analysis
4)     Task analysis

Question 10 (2 points)
Which of the following statements is true of needs assessment?
Question 10 options:
1)     The needs assessment process fails to provide information regarding the outcomes that should be collected to evaluate training effectiveness.
2)     Upper- and mid-level managers are excluded from getting involved in the needs assessment process.
3)    The role of the needs assessment process is to determine if training is the appropriate solution.
4)    A company's decision regarding outsourcing its training is independent of the needs assessment outcome.

Question 11 (2 points)
Which of the following is true of roles of managers?
Question 11 options:
1)    Line managers spend less time managing individual performance and developing employees than mid level managers or executives do.
   
2)    Midlevel managers or executives are not involved in planning and allocating resources, coordinating interdependent groups, and managing change.
   
3)    The roles that managers have in a company do not influence the focus of training development, and learning activity.
    4) Regardless of their level in a company, all managers are expected to serve as spokespersons to other work units, managers, and vendors.

Question 12 (2 points)
The _____ analysis helps identify employees who need training.
Question 12 options:
1)     SWOT analysis
2)     Value chain analysis
3)     BCG matrix
4)     Person Analysis

Question 13 (2 points)
_____ refers to the difficulty level of written materials.
Question 13 options:
1)     Literacy
2)    Cognitive Challenge
3)     Phoenetics
4)    Readability

Question 14 (2 points)
____ is the ability to establish the necessary platform requirements to efficiently and completely coordinate data transfer.
Question 14 options:
1)     Systems Architecture
2)     Documentation Relay
3)     Proficiencies
4)     Data Migration

Question 15 (2 points)
_____ refer to accepted standards of behaviors for work-group members.
Question 15 options:
1)    Expectations
2)     Policy
3)    Norms
4)     Standards of Excellence

Question 16 (2 points)
Who should participate in needs assessment?
Question 16 options:

Question 17 (2 points)
How do age and generation impact training?
Question 17 options:

Question 18 (2 points)
What is the value of "Rapid Needs Assessment" to an organization?
Question 18 options:

Question 19 (2 points)
Explain "Situational Constraints".
Question 19 options:

Question 20 (2 points)
What is a competency model?
Question 20 options:

BUSI531 Week 2 Dropbox Assignment 1

Instructions
Write a paper on the topic described under "Application Assignments" located on page 152, and develop a competency model on the same. Expectations Your paper must be approximately 3-5 pages in length. You must use APA or MLA style of writing. Dropbox Assignment 1 is due on Sunday by 11:59 p.m. CT, of Week 2.

 

Develop a competency model for a job held by a friend, spouse, or roommate (someone other than yourself). Use the process discussed in this chapter to develop your model. Note the most difficult part of developing the model. How could the model be used?

 

BUSI531 Week 1 Quiz

Quiz
Question 1 (2 points)
 
Which of the following is true of roles of managers?
Question 1 options:

1)     Line managers spend lesser time managing individual performance and developing employees than midlevel managers or executives do.


2)     Midlevel managers or executives are not involved in planning and allocating resources, coordinating interdependent groups, and managing change.


3)     The roles that managers have in a company do not influence the focus of training, development, and learning activity.


4)     Regardless of their level in a company, all managers are expected to serve as spokespersons to other work units, managers, and vendors.

Question 2 (2 points)
 
The _____ considers four different perspectives: customer, internal, innovation and learning, and financial.
Question 2 options:

1)     SWOT analysis


2)     Value chain analysis


3)     BCG matrix


4)     Balanced scorecard

Question 3 (2 points)
 
Business-level outcomes chosen to measure the overall value of training or learning initiatives are referred to as _____.
Question 3 options:

1)     Values


2)     Goals


3)     Business strategies


4)     Metrics

Question 4 (2 points)
 
Which of the following is true with regard to SWOT analysis?
Question 4 options:

1)     In a SWOT analysis, external analysis attempts to identify the company's strengths and weaknesses.


2)     A SWOT analysis represents the strategy believed to be the best alternative to achieve the company goals.


3)     A SWOT analysis is typically conducted in the strategic training and development initiatives identification step of the strategic training and development process.


4)     A SWOT analysis provides a company the information needed to generate several alternative business strategies and make a strategic choice.

Question 5 (2 points)
 
_____ involves examining a company's operating environment to identify opportunities and threats.
Question 5 options:

1)     Internal analysis


2)     Gap analysis


3)     External analysis


4)     Pareto analysis

Question 6 (2 points)
 
A SWOT analysis is typically conducted in the _____ step of the strategic training and development process.
Question 6 options:

1)     Business strategy formulation and identification


2)     Strategic training and development initiatives


3)     Training and development activities


4)     Measures or metrics identification

Question 7 (2 points)
 
_____ typically includes information on the customers served, why the company exists, what the company does, the value received by the customers, and the technology used.
Question 7 options:

1)     Balanced scorecard


2)     Vision


3)     Mission


4)     Code of conduct

Question 8 (2 points)
 
The final step of the strategic training and development process involves:
Question 8 options:

1)     Choosing strategic training and development initiatives.


2)     Identifying the business strategy.


3)     Identifying measures or metrics.


4)     Creating concrete training and development activities.

Question 9 (2 points)
 
The strategic training and development process begins with:
Question 9 options:

1)     Choosing strategic training and development initiatives.


2)     Identifying the business strategy.


3)     Developing websites for knowledge sharing.


4)     Identifying measures or metrics.

Question 10 (2 points)
 
Which of the following is true about a learning organization?
Question 10 options:

1)     A learning organization discourages learning at the group and organizational levels.


2)     A learning organization restricts employees from experimenting with products and services.


3)     In a learning organization, employees learn from failure and from successes.


4)     In a learning organization, employees are discouraged from asking questions and admitting mistakes.

Question 11 (2 points)
 
Which of the following training programs is mandated by law?
Question 11 options:

1)     Orientation training program


2)     Leadership development program


3)     Safety training program


4)     Cross-culture training program

Question 12 (2 points)
 
The ADDIE model is most closely associated with:
Question 12 options:

1)     Employee recruitment and selection.


2)     Employee training and development.


3)     Diversity management.


4)     Quality management.

Question 13 (2 points)
 
Which of the following statements is true of the Instructional System Design (ISD) model?
Question 13 options:

1)     There is a single universally accepted instructional systems development model.


2)     The model rarely follows a neat, orderly, step-by-step approach of activities.


3)     The model eliminates the need for trainers to provide detailed documents of each activity found in the model.


4)     The model has no underlying assumptions.

Question 14 (2 points)
 
Which of the following is NOT included in The Strategic Training and Development Process:
Question 14 options:

1)     Strategic Training and Development Initiatives


2)     Training and Development Activities


3)     Metrics that show value of training


4)     Metrics that show global impact training

Question 15 (2 points)
 
A(n) ______ Strategy emphasizes liquidation and divestiture of businesses.
Question 15 options:

1)     Concentration


2)     Internal Growth


3)     External Growth


4)     Disinvestment

Question 16 (2 points)
 
Briefly explain the Training Design Process.
Question 16 options:


Question 17 (2 points)
 
Please provide an example of Tacit Knowledge.
Question 17 options:


Question 18 (2 points)
 
Provide an example of how cross training could be used in an organization.
Question 18 options:


Question 19 (2 points)
 
What is informal learning?
Question 19 options:


Question 20 (2 points)
Human Capital is an example of an intangible asset. What are three more examples?
Question 20 options:

BUSI531 Week 1 Discussion 2

Discuss the organization you used in Discussion 1 in terms of the training and development model it uses, and explain why or why not you feel it is the best choice. What would be your preferred choice, and why?

 

BUSI531 Week 1 Discussion 1

Select an organization with which you are familiar through work or personal interest. What do you see as the three top influences on learning and training considerations within that organization? Why?

BUSI530 Week 8 Final Exam (49 out of 52 correct)

Question 1 (5 points)
 Employers must adopt policies accommodating LGBT employees in the workplace. It is the right thing to do, and besides non-LGBT employees don't have any real basis for disagreeing with such a policy.
Question 1 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 2 (5 points)
 An individual reporting sexual harassment may request that their alleged harasser not be informed of the investigation out of fear of retaliation. The employer should not agree to this, and the alleged harasser should be informed of the investigation so that his/her side of the story is on the record too.
Question 2 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 3 (5 points)
 If an employee develops a religious conflict during the course of his employment (i.e., it was not present when he first worked for the employer), then the employer is under no duty to find an accommodation for that employee's religious belief.
Question 3 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 4 (5 points)
 Workers' compensation laws are generally no-fault, which means that workers injured on the job are entitled to recover from their injuries without having to prove who is at fault.
Question 4 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 5 (5 points)
Under the Equal Pay Act, the content of the job, rather than the job title or description, determines the comparison of whether two jobs are substantially the same.
Question 5 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 6 (5 points)
The Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) prohibits employers from collecting genetic information and from considering someone's genetic background in any employment-related decisions such as hiring or firing.
Question 6 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 7 (5 points)
The National Labor Relations Act created the National Labor Relations Board, an independent federal agency.
Question 7 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 8 (5 points)
The ADEA permits younger employees to pursue a kind of "reverse-discrimination" lawsuit, alleging that they were discriminated against in favor of an older worker.
Question 8 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 9 (5 points)

An individual must have an actual disability in order to be protected under the ADA.
Question 9 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 10 (5 points)

In hostile work environment sexual harassment any incident, no matter how seemingly small or insignificant, can constitute sexual harassment.
Question 10 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 11 (5 points)

In general, federal employees are permitted to bargain over wages, hours and benefits, but cannot bargain over things like the numbers, types and grades of positions.
Question 11 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 12 (5 points)

Prior to the Civil Rights Act of 1964, it was common for states to have laws that limited or prohibited women from working at certain jobs, under the theory that such laws were for the protection of women.
Question 12 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 13 (5 points)

ERISA (the Employee Retirement Income Security Act) contains provisions affecting retirement and welfare plans.
Question 13 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 14 (5 points)

Employers need to be concerned with the possibility of religious harassment in the workplace —for example, nonreligious employees complaining that they are being harassed by religious employees.
Question 14 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 15 (5 points)

The Defense of Marriage Act (DOMA) defined marriage, for federal purposes, as between any two individuals, regardless of their gender identities or sexual orientations.
Question 15 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 16 (5 points)

Fetal protection policies are designed to protect pregnant employees or their fetuses. They do not provide protection for men, even where a man may be adversely impacted by the same condition.
Question 16 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 17 (5 points)

The requirement of reasonable accommodation for a disabled employee means that an employer must create a new job, modify a full-time position to create a part-time position, or modify the essential functions of the job.
Question 17 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 18 (5 points)

In states that have not waived sovereign immunity, state employees are barred from suing their employers under ADEA.
Question 18 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 19 (5 points)

The Taft-Hartley Act identifies and prohibits unfair labor practices that can be committed by unions.
Question 19 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 20 (5 points)

Doug occasionally compliments his secretary when he arrives at the office, saying things like, "Mrs. Woods, you look nice today," or "That's a nice dress." In this case, Mrs. Woods would not have a claim for sexual harassment.
Question 20 options:
    1) True
    2) False


Quiz
Page 2 of 3
Question 21 (5 points)
   
ADEA has strict recordkeeping requirements for employees and applicants.
Question 21 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 22 (5 points)

If a state child labor law is stricter than the federal law, the federal law supersedes the state law.
Question 22 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 23 (5 points)

One of the factors that the courts will look at when deciding if an employer has reasonably accommodated an employee's religious conflict is whether other employees are willing to assist in the accommodation.
Question 23 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 24 (5 points)

The Lewisburg Fire Department advertisement advertises for individuals to be a part of its next academy class. The ad states that applicants must be at least 5'8", and must be capable of carrying at least 100 lbs up a series of 6 steps. The Lewisburg Fire Department will not have any Title VII gender discrimination issues since neither criteria is gender related.
Question 24 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 25 (5 points)

Sexual harassment claims are covered under Title VII even if employees are of the same gender; however harassment based on sexual orientation is not covered under Title VII.
Question 25 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 26 (5 points)

An employer will not be held responsible under the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) for workplace hazards or injuries where the harm is the result of reckless behavior by an employee.
Question 26 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 27 (5 points)
Sexual harassment class action trials are rare mainly because:
Question 27 options:
   
1)     most cases are settled rather than litigated as a means of avoiding bad publicity and the possibility of even greater damages if the matter goes to trial.
2)     the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission has limited power to enforce sexual harassment claims.
3)     the Civil Rights Act of 1991 is not clear about what constitutes sexual harassment and what does not.
4)     claimants are not entitled to any compensatory damages on winning the claim.

Question 28 (5 points)
Carrie, aged 59, is employed as a makeup artist with a local department store. The company hires a new manager, Roger. Roger fires Carrie and gives her job to Kellie, aged 42. Under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act, Carrie:
Question 28 options:
   
1)     does not have a valid claim because Carrie's replacement must be at least 20 years younger than Carrie.
2)     has a valid claim because the employer did not correctly apply the provisions of the Old Workers' Benefit Protection Act.
3)     has a valid claim even though her replacement is a member of the protected class.
4)     does not have a valid claim because the person who hired her is not the one who fired her.

Question 29 (5 points)

An employee may successfully sue for religious discrimination on the basis of all of the following except:
Question 29 options:
1)     the employee is terminated because the employee refuses to work on a particular day because it is their Sabbath
2)     the employee refuses to pay employment-based taxes because they believe that the government does not have the right to collect them
3)     the employee believes their religion requires them to dress in a particular way and they are terminated for not following the employer's dress code
4)     the employee is denied a request to take certain days off that represent religious holidays

Question 30 (5 points)
Katie is a qualified carpenter who works for Kent Construction Inc. Kent Construction is losing business as most clients do not like the idea of female construction workers working on their project. They often complain that they cannot trust the work of a female employee. On this basis, Kent Construction fires Katie. Which of the following statements is true in this situation?
Question 30 options:
1)     Kent Construction is not liable for gender discrimination as it can use the bona fide occupational qualification defense.
2)     Kent Construction is liable for gender discrimination because Katie was hired for a job that requires being male as a bona fide occupational qualification.
3)     Kent Construction is not liable for gender discrimination because of the business necessity defense.
4)     Kent Construction is liable for gender discrimination as customer preference is not a legitimate reason to discriminate against employees.

Question 31 (5 points)
Which of the following statements is true of the Age Discrimination in Employment Act?
Question 31 options:
1)     It only protects employees over 60 from discrimination.
2)     It does not provide protection from reverse discrimination.
3)     It only allows employees to pursue a claim if an employer discriminated against all of its older workers.
4)     It is less lenient than Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 regarding the latitude afforded employers' reasons for adverse employment decisions.

Question 32 (5 points)
The term essential functions of a job, as used in the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), best refers to:
Question 32 options:
1)     those tasks that are fundamental, and not marginal or unnecessary, to fulfillment of the job's objectives.
2)     tasks so designated by the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC).
3)     those tasks that are required to be performed in case of any emergencies.
4)     tasks so designated by an employer as ancillary to the achievement of the job's long-term goals.

Question 33 (5 points)
Each scenario below illustrates a worker who is terminated or demoted. Which scenario does NOT seem to be covered under the ADEA?
Question 33 options:
1)     Sally's supervisor announces one day that he cannot stand all of the "menopausal" women in the room. Two days later, Sally (age 47) and two other employees over age 40 were fired.
2)     Rhoda, age 41, was demoted from lead operator to a subordinate position. A male operator, age 32, with less experience was promoted to the position of lead operator.
3)     Reggie, age 46, was terminated because his job was going to be eliminated. He later learns that another employee, age 34, was offered the job at approximately the same rate of pay.
4)     Fun Times, a toy company, fires Alan, an employee who just reached age 30, because they feel he is too old to connect with the toy market.

Question 34 (5 points)
Laura applies for the job of a firefighter. She is 5 feet 2 inches tall and weighs 110 pounds. Laura is denied the position because she does not meet the height and weight requirements. The fire department's height and weight requirements are:
Question 34 options:
1)     not discriminatory because firefighters have mostly been tall.
2)     discriminatory if it can be shown that height and weight requirements are a business necessity.  (Incorrect)
3)     not discriminatory because Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 does not cover jobs such as guards, police officers, and firefighters.
4)     discriminatory if it can be shown that the requirements are not directly correlated to ability to do the job.

Question 35 (5 points)
 Mr. Tompkins of Lawlor& Tompkins Law Firm was conducting an interview for a junior associate attorney. He asked Macy, an applicant, if she was married and when she intended, if ever, to have children. His second interview was with Scott. He did not ask Scott either of these questions. Which of the following is true in this situation?
Question 35 options:
1)     Macy has a claim for gender discrimination as it is illegal to ask questions in a job interview that are only asked of one gender.
2)     Macy does not have a claim for gender discrimination because she was not yet employed by the law firm.
3)     Macy has a claim for gender discrimination only if she in unmarried.
4)     Macy does not have a claim for gender discrimination because of the bona fide occupational qualification defense available to employers.

Question 36 (5 points)
Employers must promptly consider an employee's request for accommodation. Factors the courts look to in determining whether the employer has been timely include all of the following except:
Question 36 options:
1)     what the employee did during the delay, i.e., how well did the employee function during the period of the delay
2)     whether the accommodation requested was simple, or more complex
3)     length of the delay
4)     whether the employee contributed to the delay

Question 37 (5 points)
The Older Workers Benefit Protection Act (OWBPA) requires that a signed waiver of an employee's rights to file a claim under the ADEA be "knowing and voluntary". To be considered "knowing and voluntary", the waiver must satisfy each of the following requirements except:
Question 37 options:
1)     in exchange for signing the waiver, the employee must receive consideration in addition to that which he is already entitled to
2)     the waiver must specifically refer to ADEA rights or claims.
3)     the waiver must be signed in the presence of two independent witnesses and a notary public.
4)     the employee has sufficient time to review the waiver, and is directed to consult with an attorney before signing.

Question 38 (5 points)
Which type of workplace injury must be reported to OSHA within eight (8) hours of occurrence?
Question 38 options:
1)     An injury requiring immediate transport to a hospital
2)     An injury requiring an employee to change jobs
3)     A workplace fatality
4)     An injury requiring any sort of medical treatment

Question 39 (5 points)
Which of the following groups may be responsible for sexual harassment in a workplace (i.e., are the "harassers")?
Question 39 options:
1)     Coworkers
2)     Clients or customers
3)     Supervisors or managers
4)     All of the above

Question 40 (5 points)
In the context of unwelcome sexual activity, if the activity started out being consensual and one employee calls a halt to it and the other continues:
Question 40 options:
1)     it cannot be termed sexual harassment as it was once consensual in nature.
2)     it is sexual harassment only if the harassee is a female employee.
3)     it can become sexual harassment at the time the activity is no longer consensual.
4)     it is sexual harassment as the law strives to totally devoid workplaces of sexuality.

Question 41 (5 points)
Charles, aged 63, was a manager at the Exotic Wood Corp. His supervisor, Dee, frequently made derogatory age-related comments about Charles to other workers. Dee encouraged Charles' co-workers to be uncooperative toward him and not talk to him as she believed that older people gossip a lot and reduce productivity. Charles filed a complaint under the Age Discrimination in Employment Act against Dee. In this case, Charles can make a prima facie case for ________.
Question 41 options:
1)     hostile environment
2)     Disparate impact discrimination (Incorrect)
3)     quid pro quo
4)     reverse discrimination

Question 42 (5 points)
Which of the following groups of employees are NOT covered by the FLSA?
Question 42 options:
1)     Federal, state and local government employees
2)     Employees of a small business (generating $250,000 per year) producing goods for interstate commerce
3)     Full-time and part-time employees of a business involved in interstate commerce
4)     Employees of a hospital making less than $500,000

Question 43 (5 points)
The three possibilities for a disability determination under the ADA include all of the following except:
Question 43 options:
1)     a record of a physical or mental impairment that substantially limited a major life activity
2)     when an employer takes an action prohibited by the ADA because of an actual or perceived impairment that is not both transitory and minor
3)     a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life activities of an individual
4)     a physical or mental impairment that is not known to an individual's physician and rarely impacts that individual's work or family life

Question 44 (5 points)
Shayna, a Jewish woman, applied for a baker's job with the Golden Crust Bakery. After she was hired, Shayna told her manager at Golden Crust that she could not work on Friday night because the Sabbath begins on Friday night. The manager replied that she was the only Jewish baker, and all of the other bakers work on Friday night. He also added that she would be fired if she refused to comply with company policies. Which of the following is most likely to be true in this case?
Question 44 options:
1)     Shayna does not have a claim for religious discrimination because she did not inform Golden Crust that she was Jewish when she applied for the job.
2)     Shayna has a claim for religious discrimination because Golden Crust has no other Jewish employees.
3)     Shayna has a claim for religious discrimination because Golden Crust failed to make an attempt to reasonably accommodate her religious practice.
4)     Shayna does not have a claim for religious discrimination because she did not provide a suggestion as to how her religious practice could be accommodated.

Question 45 (5 points)
The requirements for hostile work environment sexual harassment include all of the following except:
Question 45 options:
1)     the employee does not like the project they were just assigned.
2)     the harassment is based on gender.
3)     the harassment is not welcomed by the employee.
4)     the employer has knowledge of the harassment but took no action.

Question 46 (5 points)
How will the Employment Nondiscrimination Act (ENDA) affect Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 if enacted?
Question 46 options:
1)     It will provide employers with greater flexibility in making workplace policies and decisions related to LGBT employees.
2)     It will omit same-gender sexual harassment from Title VII's protection.
3)     It will make gender reassignment surgery illegal under Title VII.
4)     It will extend Title VII's coverage to include discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation and gender identity.

Question 47 (5 points)
Roger is a customer service representative at FlyAway Airlines. He confided in one of his co-workers that he tested positive for HIV, but the co-worker spread the news around the office. Soon, several of Roger's co-workers ostracized him and refused to work with him. He was also constantly subjected to verbal abuse by his co-workers. Roger reported these incidents to his supervisor, and his supervisor fired him. Which of the following holds true in this case?
Question 47 options:
1)     Roger has a claim for hostile work environment harassment under the Americans with Disabilities Act because he did not request any accommodations from his employer.
2)     Roger does not have a claim for hostile work environment harassment under the Americans with Disabilities Act because the act does not cover employees working for private employers.
3)     Roger has a discrimination claim based on hostile work environment under the Americans with Disabilities Act because FlyAway took an adverse employment action by firing him.
4)     Roger does not have a discrimination claim based on hostile work environment under the Americans with Disabilities Act because his disability is not outwardly evident.

Question 48 (5 points)
A management security clause gives an employer the right to:
Question 48 options:
1)     require the union to represent all employees fairly and without discrimination based on union membership.
2)     run the business and make appropriate business decisions as long as management complies with applicable laws and agreements.
3)     require employees to sign an agreement stating that they do not belong to an union and will not join one.
4)     refuse to sign a written agreement to which the contracting parties orally agreed.

Question 49 (5 points)
Title VII (of the Civil Rights Act of 1964) requires employers to accommodate an employee's religious practices and beliefs:
Question 49 options:
1)     to the extent that the religion is recognized by society.
2)     provided the employee gives an assurance in writing that his or her practices will not affect the policies of the company.
3)     provided the employee can produce a member of the clergy who will vouch for the religious practices and beliefs.
4)     to the extent that it does not cause undue hardship.

Question 50 (5 points)
There is no federal legislation protecting LGBT employees from employment discrimination. However:
Question 50 options:
1)     Employers need to be aware that Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits same-gender sexual harassment based on sexual orientation.  (Incorrect)
2)     they cannot be prevented by employers from wearing clothing, jewelry, or makeup of their choice.
3)     employers need to be aware that state and local ordinances may prohibit job discrimination against homosexuals.
4)     they can use the bona fide occupational qualification defense to make a discrimination claim.

Question 51 (5 points)
The piece of legislation that established the right of employees to form unions, to bargain collectively, and to strike is the:
Question 51 options:
1)     Norris-LaGuardia Act
2)     National Labor Relations Act
3)     Landrum-Griffin Act
4)     Taft-Hartley Act

Question 52 (5 points)
Steven, an environmental enthusiast, volunteers to work as an intern at Green Trees, a non-profit organization dedicated to environmental protection. Green Trees hires Steven without any pay. Which of the following is most likely to be true in this case?
Question 52 options:
1)     Green Trees is required to guarantee Steven a job at the conclusion of his internship if he is not being paid during the internship period.
2)     Green Trees may not be required to pay Steven any overtime compensation, but it is required to pay him a minimum wage for his services.
3)     Green Trees violated the Fair Labor Standards Act because it is legally required to pay all hired employees.
4)     Green Trees did not violate the Fair Labor Standards Act because unpaid internships at non-profit charitable organizations are generally permissible.