R04 Human Relations Self-Assessment 1

First, download and fill out the Manifest Needs Analysis Tool.

DOWNLOAD PDF

Respond to the following prompts and questions in a one-page paper. 

1. What did your Manifest Needs Analysis reveal about your primary needs?
2. Do you agree with the Needs Analysis tool?  Why or why not?
3. Now that you know what your primary needs are, how can you improve your communication and relationships with others and yourself by applying concepts you learned in the chapter?
4. What is your action plan for implementing changes in your life that address your primary needs?

Homework Assignment: BAM560 Unit-3 Examination

Homework Assignment: BAM560 Unit-3 Examination: Q1) Conflict in an organization is: always bad always good not always bad a sign of bankruptcy completely avoidable Q2) What are the three c...

BFIN332 Final 14 Problems

Problem-1: (4 points) A particular security's default risk premium is 6 percent. For all securities, the inflation risk premium is 3 percent and the real interest rate is 2.5 percent. The security's liquidity risk premium is 1 percent and maturity risk premium is 2 percent. The security has no special covenants. What is the security's equilibrium rate of return?

Problem-2  (4 points) Suppose that the current one-year rate (one-year spot rate) and expected one-year T-bill rates over the following three years (i.e., years 2, 3, and 4, respectively) are as follows:

1R1 = 3.0%, E(2R1) = 4.0%, E(3R1) = 12.0%, E(4R1) = 14.0%, Using the unbiased expectations theory, what is the current (long-term) rate for four-year-maturity Treasury securities (1R4)?

Problem-3 (4 points) HydroTech Corp stock was $50 per share a year ago when it was purchased. Since then, it paid a $4 per share dividend. The stock price is currently $45. If you owned 500 shares of HydroTech, what was your percent return? 

Problem-4: (4 points) Portfolio Return Year-to-date, Company X had earned a -3 percent return. During the same time period, Company Y earned 12 percent and Company Z earned 7 percent. If you have a portfolio made up of 50 percent Company X, 30 percent Company Y, and 20 percent Company Z, what is your portfolio return?

Portfolio return = 50%*(-3%) + 30%*12% + 20%*7% = 3.5%

 

Problem-5: 8 points) You hold the positions in the table below.

COMPANY PRICE # SHARES BETA

Goodmonth $25.00 120 1.5

Icestone $20.00 150 2.5 Bridgerock $40.00 100 – 1.0

A.    What is the beta of your portfolio?

B.      If you expect the market to earn 14 percent and the risk-free rate is 4 percent, what is the required return of the portfolio?

Problem-6: (4 points) TAB Inc. has a $1,000 (face value), 10 year bond issue selling for $1,184 that pays an annual coupon of 8.5 percent. What would be TAB's before-tax component cost of debt?

 Problem-7: (4 points) Team Sports has 6 million shares of common stock outstanding, 1 million shares of preferred stock outstanding, and 200 thousand bonds ($1,000 par). If the common shares are selling for $24.50 per share, the preferred share are selling for $20 per share, and the bonds are selling for 65 percent of par, what would be the weight used for equity in the computation of Team's WACC?

Problem-8: (4 points) Suppose that TipsNToes, Inc.'s capital structure features 40 percent equity, 60 percent debt, and that its before-tax cost of debt is 9 percent, while its cost of equity is 15 percent. If the appropriate weighted average tax rate is 25 percent, what will be TipsNToes's WACC?

We = 40%,  Ke = 15%

Wd = 60%, After tax Kd = 9%*(1-25%) = 6.75%

WACC = We*Ke + Wd*Kd = 40%*15% + 60%*6.75% = 10.05%

  

Problem-9: (4 points) Suppose you sell a fixed asset for $50,000 when its book value is $60,000. If your company's marginal tax rate is 40%, what will be the effect on cash flows of this sale (i.e., what will be the after-tax cash flow of this sale)?

 

Problem-10: (7 points) Your company has spent $500,000 on research to develop a new computer game. The firm is planning to spend $100,000 on a machine to produce the new game. Shipping and installation costs of the machine will be capitalized and depreciated; they total $5,000. The machine has an expected life of 3 years, a $100,000 estimated resale value, and falls under the MACRS 5-Year class life. Revenue from the new game is expected to be $500,000 per year, with costs of $200,000 per year. The firm has a tax rate of 35 percent, an opportunity cost of capital of 10 percent, and it expects net working capital to increase by $100,000 at the beginning of the project. What will be the net cash flow for year one of this project?

Problem-11: (4 points) Compute the NPV for Project Y and accept or reject the project with the cash flows shown below if the appropriate cost of capital is 10 percent.

TIME: 0 1 2 3 4 5

CASH FLOW: -1000 -2,000 3,000 0 1,000 2,500

Problem-12: (5 points) Compute the Payback statistic for Project X and recommend whether the firm should accept or reject the project with the cash flows shown below if the appropriate cost of capital is 10 percent and the maximum allowable payback is 5 years.

TIME: 0 1 2 3 4 5

CASH FLOW: - 75 - 75 0 100 75 90

Problem-13: (4 points) Compute the IRR statistic for Project X and note whether the firm should accept or reject the project with the cash flows shown below if the appropriate cost of capital is 10 percent.

TIME:                        0 1 2 3 4 5

CASH FLOW: - 75 - 75 0 100 75 90

 

Problem-14:  (8 points) Suppose your firm is considering two mutually exclusive, required projects with the cash flows shown below. The required rate of return on projects of both of their risk class is 8 percent, and that the maximum allowable payback and discounted payback statistic for the projects are 2 and 3 years, respectively.

TIME: 0 1 2 3

Project A CF: $ - 10,000 $ 10,000 $ 30,000 $ 3,000

Project B CF: $ - 30,000 $ 10,000 $ 20,000 $ 50,000

Use the Profitability Index (PI) decision rule to evaluate these projects; what is the PI for each project, and which one(s) should it be accepted or rejected?

 

 

BAM560 Unit-4 Forces leading companies to pursue international operations

Explain some of the forces leading companies to pursue international operations.

BAM560 Unit-4 Examination

Q1) A code of business ethics is:
sorely needed in light of a new wave of ethical issues including product safety, employee  health, and sexual harassment
concerned with what responsibilities the firm has to employees, consumers,  environmentalists, minorities, communities, and other groups
a report that reveals how the firm's operations impact the natural environment
a set of strict regulations requiring firms to conserve energy
a series of voluntary standards in the environmental field

Q2) Simply having a code of ethics:
will ensure ethical business behavior
eliminates the need for periodic ethics workshops
is all that is necessary to sensitize people to workplace circumstances in which ethics issues may arise
is insufficient to guarantee that employees behave in an ethical manner
secures an ethics culture in the workplace

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a way that companies can help create an ethical culture in their organization?
outlining ethical expectations
giving examples of ethical situations that commonly occur in their businesses
providing code-of-conduct manuals
creating interactive exercises that pose hypothetical ethical dilemmas
discouraging whistle-blowing

Q4) ________ refers to policies that require employees to report any unethical violations they discover or see in the firm.
whistle-blowing
bribery
adultery
sustainability
stewardship

Q5) Responsibility for encouraging ethical decision making and ensuring ethical behavior in a firm  lies with:
only a firm's strategists
only a firm's managers
only a firm's shareholders
both a firm's strategists and its managers
neither a firm's strategists nor its managers

Q6) More and more firms believe that ethics training and an ethics culture:
are socially irresponsible
are admirable but damage a firm's competitive positioning
are costly and provide no practical benefit to the company
create strategic advantage
can tarnish the reputation of a firm

Q7) Ethics training programs should contain which of the following?
messages from the CEO or business owner emphasizing ethical business practices
the development and discussion of codes of ethics
rocedures for discussing unethical behavior
procedures for reporting unethical behavior
all of the above

Q8) Firms can align ethical and strategic decision making by:
omitting ethical considerations from long-term planning
excluding ethical decision making from the performance appraisal process
discouraging whistle-blowing
monitoring departmental and corporate performance regarding ethical issues
all of the above

Q9) Bribery involves:
bestowing a gift to influence the recipient's conduct
requiring employees to report any unethical violations they discover or see in the firm
prohibiting love affairs between bosses and their subordinates
encouraging firms to play a role in curing society of its ills
forcing companies to take responsibility for the impact their actions have on society

Q10) The U.S. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act and a new provision in the Dodd-Frank financial regulation-law allows company employees who bring cases of financial fraud, such as bribery, to the government's attention to receive ________ percent of any sum recovered.
less than 10
exactly 20
up to 30
about 40
at least 50

Q11) The United Kingdom's new bribery law:
is less stringent than the similar U.S. FCPA
carries a minimum 10-year prison sentence for those convicted of bribery
allows foreign companies doing business in the UK to bribe officials if that is their national convention
stipulates that failure to prevent bribery is an offense
all of the above

Q12) According to a recent Wall Street Journal article, ________ percent of all firms sampled had no restrictions on boss-subordinate love affairs at work.
5
13
24
39
80

Q13) According to the text, the first social responsibility of any business is to:
make enough profit to cover the costs of the future, because if this is not achieved then no other social responsibility can be met
avoid laying off employees so as to protect the employees' livelihood, even if that decision  may force the firm to liquidate
engage in social activities that have no economic benefits, to avoid the appearance of a public relations gimmick
offer courses and training in environmental management
none of the above

Q14) Social policy can best be defined as:
The responsibilities a firm has to employees, consumers, environmentalists, minorities, communities, shareholders, and other groups.
A document providing behavioral guidelines that cover daily activities and decisions within a firm.
An SEC mandate to report any unethical behavior.
The legal requirement to reveal how a firm's operations impact the natural environment.
Mandatory technical standards that result in an environmental management system.

Q15) Which of the following was among the most admired companies for social responsibility in  2012 according to Fortune magazine?
GDF Suez
China Railway Group
China Railway Construction
China State Construction Engineering
Kirin Holdings

Q16) ________ was socially responsible in the wake of the earthquake and tsunami that devastated Japan in 2011; it also was able to get supplies to people who needed them following Hurricane Katrina.
China Railway Group
GDF Suez
Walmart
RWE
Marquard & Bahls

Q17) Firms should strive to engage in social activities that:
have economic benefits
have no economic benefits
are detrimental to economic growth
drain financial resources
garner goodwill only, not profits

Q18) The U.S. government's OPIC
offers insurance to offset some risks of doing business internationally
provides insurance to eliminate all of the risks of doing business internationally
gives informational seminars about the risks associated with doing business internationally
requires that paperwork be filed by U.S. companies desiring to do business internationally
discourages foreign companies from doing business in the United States
Q19) All of the following are potential advantages to initiating, continuing, and/or expanding international operations EXCEPT:
firms can gain new customers for their products
foreign operations can absorb excess capacity, reduce unit costs, and spread economic risks over a wider number of markets
foreign operations can allow firms to establish low-cost production facilities in locations  close to raw materials and/or cheap labor
foreign operations could be seized by nationalistic factions
foreign operations may result in reduced tariffs, lower taxes, and favorable political  treatment

Q20) Which of the following is a potential advantage of conducting international operations?
competitors in foreign markets may not exist, or competition may be less intense than in  domestic markets
dealing with two or more monetary systems can complicate international business operations
differing language, culture, and value systems can make communication difficult
gaining an understanding of regional organizations is difficult but is often required in doing business internationally
all of the above

Q21) ________ can enable firms to learn the technology, culture, and business practices of other people and to make contacts with potential customers, suppliers, creditors, and distributors in foreign countries.
economies of scale
joint ventures
low-cost production facilities
reduced tariffs
domestic operations

Q22) A firm's power and prestige in domestic markets may be significantly enhanced if the firm  competes globally:
which can translate into improved negotiating power among important groups
though this rarely results in a practical advantage
but this can hurt its bargaining power with suppliers and distributors
yet this does nothing to improve its position with creditors
which can alienate the firm from its domestic creditors, suppliers, and distributors

Q23) All of the following are potential disadvantages to initiating, continuing, or expanding business across national borders EXCEPT:
Firms confront different social, cultural, and political forces when doing business  internationally, which can make communication in the firm difficult.
Keeping informed about the number and nature of competitors is more difficult when doing business internationally.
Foreign operations can absorb excess capacity, reduce unit costs, and spread economic  risks over a wider number of markets.
Dealing with two or more monetary systems can complicate international business  operations.
Foreign operations could be seized by nationalistic forces.e.

Q24) Strengths of competitors in foreign lands are often ________, and weaknesses are often ________.
overestimated; overestimated
overestimated; underestimated
underestimated; underestimated
underestimated; overestimated
none of the above

Q25) In 2012, ________ African countries held democratic elections.
3
13
23
31
43

BAM560 Unit-3 Examination

Q1) Conflict in an organization is:
always bad
always good
not always bad
a sign of bankruptcy
completely avoidable

Q2) What are the three categories of approaches for managing and resolving conflict?
avoidance, defusion, and confrontation
avoidance, apathy, and defusion
ignorance, indifference, and apathy
defusion, apathy, and avoidance
indifference, avoidance, and role-playing

Q3) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves exchanging members of conflicting parties so that each can gain an appreciation of the other's point of view?
avoidance
resistance
compliance
defusion
confrontation

Q4) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves ignoring the problem in hopes that the conflict will resolve itself?
avoidance
resistance
compliance
defusion
confrontation

Q5) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves playing down differences between conflicting parties, while accentuating similarities and common interests?
avoidance
resistance
compliance
defusion
confrontation

Q6) Why do changes in company strategy often require changes in the way an organization is structured?
Structure dictates how goals and objectives will be established.
Structure dictates how resources will be allocated.
Structure should be designed to facilitate the strategic pursuit of a firm.
all of the above
none of the above

Q7) What type of organizational structure promotes specialization of labor and allows rapid decision making?
divisional structure by product
functional structure
divisional structure by customer
strategic business unit
matrix structure

Q8) Which organizational structure is the most widely used?
departmental
strategic business unit
functional
decentralized
matrix

Q9) Medium-sized firms tend to use which type of structure?
divisional
matrix
SBU
functional
centralized

Q10) Which statement is NOT true?
Improved quality and service often result from an improved management information system.
In many firms, information technology is doing away with the workplace and allowing  employees to work at home or anywhere, anytime.
Like inventory and human resources, information is now recognized as a valuable organizational asset that can be controlled and managed.
Having an effective management information system may be the most important factor in differentiating successful from unsuccessful firms.
Computer vulnerability has been eradicated by recent innovations, and it is now possible to secure and safeguard all corporate communications, files, and business conducted over the Internet.

Q11) The first step in performing projected financial analysis is to:
estimate increases in debt.
take an inventory of goods.
calculate the projected net income.
prepare the projected balance sheet.
prepare the projected income statement.

Q12) Which element in the projected income statement CANNOT be forecasted using the percentage-of-sales method?
Interest expense
Cost of goods sold
Administrative expense
Selling expense
All of these items can be forecasted using the percentage-of-sales method.

Q13) Which of these is the most common type of budgeting time frame?
Annual
Monthly
Quarterly
Every decade
Daily

Q14) What entails developing schematic representations that reflect how your products or services compare to competitors' on dimensions most important to success in the industry?
perceptual mapping
market segmentation
market penetration
unrelated diversification
capital budgeting

Q15) Which is NOT a required step in perceptual mapping?
Select key criteria that effectively differentiate products or services in the industry.
Serve two segments with the same strategy.
Plot major competitors' products or services in the resultant matrix.
Identify areas in the positioning map where the company's products or services could be most competitive in the given target market.
Develop a marketing plan to position the company's products and services appropriately
Q16) An area on a perceptual map without ideal points indicates a:
market segment
demand void
vacant niche
multidimensional scale
product reposition

Q17) Multidimensional scaling is used to determine:
the size of a new building
the size of a new department
the amount of high-tech equipment a firm needs
perceptual mapping
market segmentation

Q18) If success for one organizational department means failure for another department, then strategies may be:
synergistic.
inconsistent.
trendy.
feasible.
advantageous.

Q19) A revised ________ should focus on changes in the organization's management, marketing, finance and accounting, production and operations, research and development (R&D), and management information systems (MIS) strengths and weaknesses.
EPM matrix
vision
IFE matrix
mission
EFE matrix

Q20) What corrective actions might a firm take during strategy evaluation?
Revise objectives.
Sell a division.
Revise the business mission.
Issue stock.
all of the above

Q21) Research suggests that which of the following is one of the best ways to overcome individuals' resistance to change in strategy evaluation?
Participation
Rational argument
Emotional reactions
Laissez-faire system
Command-and-control

Q22) Which of the following is NOT a key attribute that serves as one of the evaluative criteria for Fortune's "America's Most Admired Companies"?
Amount of physical resources
People management
Innovativeness
Social responsibility
Financial soundness

Q23) Corrective action should do all of the following EXCEPT:
improve internal weaknesses.
avoid external opportunities.
strengthen an organization's competitive position.
capitalize upon internal strengths.
avoid external threats.

Q24) Which of the following is true regarding the design of a firm's strategy-evaluation system?
It should be determined based on the unique characteristics of a company.
It does not need to take into account the organization's size.
There is one ideal system.
The management style of a firm has no bearing on the design.
There is a one-size-fits-all system that works for all companies.

Q25) All of the following are reasons to be completely open as opposed to secretive with the strategy process EXCEPT:
Openness limits rival firms from imitating or duplicating the firm's strategies.
All levels of today's workforce exhibit increased education and diversity, making such contributions valuable.
Stakeholders have greater basis for understanding and committing to a firm that is open.
Managers, employees and other stakeholders can readily contribute to the process.
Participation and openness enhance understanding, commitment and communication within the firm.

BAM560 Unit-3 Company strategy evaluation

Describe each of the activities that comprise strategy evaluation.

BAM560 Unit-2 Examination

Q1) Any object, act, event, quality, or relation used to convey meaning is known as a:
myth
rite
value
symbol
metaphor

Q2) Metaphors are:
several rites connected together
shorthand of words used to capture a vision or to reinforce old or new values
narratives based on true events
fictional stories
any objects, acts, events, qualities, or relations used to convey meaning

Q3) What is the essential bridge between the present and the future that increases the likelihood of . achieving desired results?
motivating
planning
controlling
staffing
organizing

Q4) All of the following are basic duties of management EXCEPT:
staffing
planning
consolidating
organizing
motivating

Q5) Which of the following does the text call an up-front investment in success?
planning
organizing
motivating
staffing
controlling.

Q6) Which function of management includes areas such as job design, job specifications, job analysis, and unity of command?
planning
organizing
motivating
staffing
controlling

Q7) Who does a planning horizon of two to five years apply to?
top-level management
general management
middle-level management
lower-level management
aAll levels of management

Q8) Synergy:
is the 2 + 2 = 5 effect
can result in powerful competitive advantages
can be developed by an organization through planning
exists when everyone pulls together as a team that knows what it wants to achieve
all of the above

Q9) Which management function includes breaking tasks into jobs, combining jobs to form departments, and delegating authority?
motivating
staffing
organizing
controlling
planning

Q10) Which function of management is concerned with span of control and chain of command?
planning
organizing
controlling
staffing
motivating

Q11) Which of the following is the process of influencing people to accomplish specific objectives?
staffing
motivating
planning
controlling
organizing

Q12) Integration strategies are sometimes collectively referred to as which of the following categories of strategies?
horizontal integration
diversification
vertical integration
stuck-in-the-middle
hierarchical integration

Q13) Websites that sell products directly to consumers are examples of which type of strategy?
backward integration
product development
forward integration
horizontal integration
conglomerate diversification

Q14) Today McDonald's owns about ________ percent of its restaurants.
9
20
50
67
89

Q15) Which of these strategies is effective when the number of suppliers is small and the number of  competitors is large?
conglomerate diversification
forward integration
concentric diversification
backward integration
horizontal diversification

Q16) Backward integration is effective in all of these cases EXCEPT:
when an organization competes in an industry that is growing rapidly
when an organization has both capital and human resources to manage the new business of supplying its own raw materials
when an organization needs to acquire a needed resource quickly
when the advantages of stable prices are not important
when present suppliers have high profit margins

Q17) What refers to a strategy of seeking ownership of, or increased control over a firm's competitors?
forward integration
conglomerate diversification
backward integration
horizontal integration
concentric diversification

Q18) In which situation would horizontal integration be an especially effective strategy?
when an organization can gain monopolistic characteristics in a particular area or region without being challenged by the federal government for "tending substantially" to reduce competition
when an organization competes in a slowing industry
when decreased economies of scale provide major competitive advantages
when an organization has neither the capital nor human talent needed to successfully manage an expanded organization
when competitors are succeeding due to managerial expertise or having particular resources an organization possesses

Q19) The two internal dimensions represented on the axes of the SPACE Matrix are:
competitive position and financial position.
financial position and stability position.
stability position and industry position.
industry position and internationalization.
internationalization and competitive position

Q20) In the BCG Matrix, which element represents the industry growth rate in sales, measured in  percentage terms?
second quadrant
third quadrant
x-axis
first quadrant
y-axis

Q21) Forward integration would be an appropriate strategy for which of the following types of  divisions in the BCG Matrix?
Cat
Dogs
Failures
Star
Question Marks

Q22) Firms located in which quadrant of the Grand Strategy Matrix are in an excellent strategic  position?
I
II
III
IV
V

Q23) According to the Grand Strategy Matrix, which strategy is recommended for a firm with rapid  market growth and a strong competitive position?
Joint venture
Market penetration
Unrelated diversification
Liquidation
Retrenchment

Q24) Which of these is a limitation of QSPM?
It makes it more likely that key factors will be overlooked or weighted inappropriately.
It requires intuitive judgments and educated assumptions.
It is prohibitively expensive.
Strategies cannot be examined sequentially.
Only a few strategies can be evaluated at once

Q25) How many cells are in a SWOT matrix?
two
four
six
eight
nine

BAM560 Unit-2 Effective financial ratio analysis

Discuss what needs to be completed, besides the calculation and interpretation of ratios, to complete an effective financial ratio analysis

BAM560 Strategic Management Final Exam

 BAM560
Strategic Management
Strategic Management: Concepts and Cases
Strategic Management
Final Examination
1
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1) During what stage of strategic management are a firm's specific internal strengths and weaknesses determined?
A) Feedback
B) Implementation
C) Goal-setting
D) Formulation
E) Evaluation

2) What step in the strategic development process involves mobilizing employees and managers to put strategies into action?
A) Implementing strategy
B) Formulating strategy
C) Strategy evaluation
D) Competitive advantage
E) Strategic advantage

3) Which phase of strategic management is called the action phase?
A) Strategy implementation
B) Strategy formulation
C) Allocating resources
D) Strategy evaluation
E) Measuring performance

4) ________ is not a strategy-implementation activity.
A) Devising policies
B) Establishing annual objectives
C) Taking corrective actions`
D) Motivating employees
E) Allocating resources

5) ________ and ________ are external forces transforming business and society
today.
A) Corporate culture; stakeholders
B) Stakeholders; strategy
C) E-commerce; strategy
D) E-commerce; globalization
E) Strategy; globalization
Strategic Management
Final Examination
2
6) In December 2006, online sales in the U.S. rose by
A) 150 percent.
B) 10 percent.
C) 100 percent.
D) 25 percent.
E) 50 percent.

7) The one factor that has most significantly impacted the nature and core of
buying and selling in nearly all industries has been
A) corporate greed.
B) customer and employee focus.
C) the government.
D) the Internet.
E) political borders.

8) Specific results an organization seeks to achieve in pursuing its basic mission
are
A) rules.
B) mission.
C) policies.
D) objectives.
E) strategies.

9) In which phase of strategic management are annual objectives especially important?
A) Implementation
B) Control
C) Evaluation
D) Formulation
E) Management

10) What are guides to decision making?
A) Laws
B) Procedures
C) Goals
D) Rules
E) Policies

11) The changes that occurred when Robert Iger took over the reigns at Disney,
demonstrate which current trend in organizations?
A) Increased emphasis on strategic planning
B) Increased structuring of strategic management
C) Increased decentralizing of strategic management
D) Increased formalization of the strategic management process
E) Increased central planning of the strategic management process

12) According to research, organizations using strategic management are
________ than those that do not.
A) more complex
B) more profitable
C) less profitable
D) less complex
E) less static

13) According to Greenley, strategic management offers all of these benefits except that
A) it provides an objective view of management problems.
B) it encourages a favorable attitude toward change.
C) it maximizes the effects of adverse conditions and changes.
D) it creates a framework for internal communication among personnel.
E) it gives a degree of discipline and formality to the management of a business.

14) What is not a reason given for poor or no strategic planning in organizations?
A) Fire-fighting
B) Trust of management
C) Poor reward structure
D) Wasting of time
E) Being content with success

15) Principles of conduct that guide decision-making are known as
A) social responsibility requirements.
B) business ethics.
C) human rights.
D) nonprofit organization policies.
E) the Constitution

16) Ethical standards come out of ________ in a final analysis.
A) history and heritage
B) competitors
C) community involvement
D) stakeholder analysis
E) government

17) All of these are potential disadvantages of an international operation except
A) reduced tariffs and taxes.
B) complexity due to a multiple monetary system.
C) overestimated weaknesses and underestimated strengths of competitors.
D) differing languages, cultures and value systems.
E) all of these are potential disadvantages.

18) Which of these basic questions should a vision statement answer?
A) Who are our competitors?
B) What is our business?
C) Who are our employees?
D) What do we want to become?
E) Why do we exist?

19) Who is referred to as "the father of modern management?"
A) Smith
B) Deming
C) Drucker
D) Peters
E) McGinnis

20) The mission statement answers which question?
A) How can we improve ourselves?
B) What do we want to become?
C) Who are our stakeholders?
D) What is our business?
E) How can we increase profitability?

21) The vision statement answers which question?
A) Who are our stakeholders?
B) What do we want to become?
C) What is our business?
D) How can we increase profitability?
E) How can we improve ourselves?

22) In the process of developing a mission statement, it is important to involve
A) the board of directors only.
B) upper-level management only.
C) as few managers as possible.
D) as many managers as possible.
E) lower-level management only.

23) What can be used to promote unbiased views and to manage the development
of the mission statement more effectively?
A) An internal group
B) Surveys
C) Command-and-control
D) A committee of managers
E) A facilitator

24) Business Week reports that firms using mission statements have ________
percent higher return on certain financial measures than those without such
statements.
A) 15
B) 57
C) 54
D) 10
E) 30

25) All stakeholders
A) have environmental concerns as their top priority.
B) have the same claims and concerns about an organization.
C) have ownership rights in an organization.
D) have the same voting rights in an organization.
E) have claims and concerns about an organization, but these claims and con-
cerns vary.

26) The three characteristics of a mission statement are a declaration of attitude,
a declaration of social policy and
A) a profit orientation.
B) an employee orientation.
C) a customer orientation.
D) a shareholder orientation.
E) an environmental orientation.

27) A proactive environmental policy is likely to lead to
A) numerous liability suits.
B) reduced customer loyalty.
C) conservation of energy.
D) higher medical costs.
E) higher cleanup costs.

28) What happened to sales of big-rig trucks as a result of new federal regulations on emissions?
A) Production increased by 40 percent
B) Production decreased by 40 percent
C) The change had no impact on production
D) Production increased by 50 percent
E) Production decreased by 50 percent

29) The corporate social policy should be reaffirmed or changed during which phase of strategy development?
A) Strategy evaluation
B) Strategy formulation
C) Strategy implementation
D) Strategic mission
E) Strategy control

30) Which of the following dimensions are not recommended aspects of a mission statement?
A) Customers
B) Concern for employees
C) Markets
D) Self-concept
E) Strategies
31) Effective mission statements
A) become ineffective in the first year.
B) never require revision.
C) are usually changed every few years.
D) stand the test of time and require little revision.
E) are usually changed every few months.

32) The process of performing an external audit needs to include
A) only top level managers, as it's a planning function.
B) stockholders and external government agencies
C) between 15 to 20 managers for it to be valid
D) primarily front-line supervisors
E) as many managers and employees as possible.

33) What effect do trends in the dollar's value have on companies in different  industries and in different locations?
A) Insignificant and unequal
B) No significant impact
C) Marginal and equal
D) Significant and unequal
E) Significant and equal

34) In general, what happens to American goods in overseas markets when there is a strong dollar?
A) Cheaper
B) More attractive
C) More expensive
D) Less expensive
E) Desirable

35) When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can be the most important part of an external audit?
A) Competitive
B) Economic
C) Multinational
D) Political
E) Technological8 Final Examination Strategic Management
36) Who is Japan's largest trading partner?
A) China
B) Mexico
C) Germany
D) U.S.
E) U.K.

37) Technological advancements can create new ________ advantages that are
more powerful than existing advantages.
A) economic
B) social
C) competitive
D) comparative
E) environmental

38) Which sector of the economy would be most impacted by technological developments?
A) Paper
B) Forestry
C) Textiles
D) Metals
E) Pharmaceuticals

39) Keeping strategies secret from employees and stakeholders can do all of the following except
A) inhibit employee and stakeholder commitment.
B) forego valuable employee or stakeholder input.
C) provide competitive advantage to competitors.
D) inhibit employee and stakeholder communication.
E) inhibit employee and stakeholder understanding.

40) Intensity of competition ________ in lower-return industries.
A) is lowest
B) is not important
C) is highest
D) is non-existent
E) fluctuates Final Examination Strategic Management 9
41) Whenever new firms can easily enter a particular industry, the intensity of
competitiveness among firms
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) fluctuates.
D) neutralizes.
E) stays the same.

42) What level of bargaining power do consumers have when the products being
purchased are standard or undifferentiated?
A) Marginal
B) High
C) Negative
D) Low
E) Not necessary

43) Because of the Internet, barriers to personal and business success are
A) acting like glass walls.
B) being eliminated.
C) lower.
D) significantly enhanced.
E) being built.

44) The international challenge faced by U.S. business is twofold
A) how to gain and maintain exports to other nations and how to defend domes-
tic markets against imported goods.
B) how to gain exports to other nations and enhance market share for imported
goods in domestic markets.
C) how to increase exports to other countries and how to increase imports from
other countries.
D) how to defend domestic markets against imported goods while minimizing
exports.
E) how to enhance imported goods in domestic markets and minimize exports to
other nations.

45) ________ exemplifies the complexity of relationships among the functional
areas of business.
A) Financial ratio analysis
B) Environmental scanning
C) External audit
D) Government audit
E) Distribution strategy
46) Which function of management includes all of those activities undertaken to
ensure actual operations conform to planned operations?
A) Controlling
B) Staffing
C) Planning
D) Motivating
E) Organizing

47) The first step in the controlling function of management is to
A) take corrective actions.
B) establish performance standards.
C) restrict breaks employees take.
D) measure individual and organizational performance.
E) evaluate expense reports.

48) Opportunity analysis is one of the basic functions of
A) computer information systems.
B) production/operations.
C) management.
D) marketing.
E) research and development.

49) ________ is not considered to be a function of marketing.
A) Market segmentation
B) Distribution
C) Marketing research
D) Customer analysis
E) Opportunity analysis

50) The Robinson-Patman Act affects a company's
A) culture.
B) employee costs.
C) cost of products.
D) pricing methods.
E) trucking methods.
51) What category of ratios measures a firm's ability to meet maturing short-term
obligations?
A) Leverage
B) Activity
C) Profitability
D) Growth
E) Liquidity

52) According to Roger Schroeder, which of the following is not a basic function
of production management?
A) Transportation
B) Inventory
C) Capacity
D) Workforce
E) Quality

53) Which country has the highest average hourly pay for auto workers?
A) Japan
B) Germany
C) Canada
D) France
E) U.S.

54) ________ has been successful in determining R&D budget allocations.
A) Financing as many project proposals as possible
B) Budgeting for R&D about what competitors spend
C) Using the percentage of sales method
D) Deciding how many successful new products are needed
E) All of the above have been used

55) Which of the following ties all business functions together and provides the basis for all managerial decisions?
A) Marketing
B) Management
C) Workforce
D) Information
E) Technology
56) Which of the following is the first step in developing an IFE Matrix?
A) Identifying the organization's functions of business
B) Summing the weighted scores for each variable
C) Identifying the organization's strengths and weaknesses
D) Determining the lead strategist
E) Determining the organization's structure

57) The IFE Matrix should be ________ in multidivisional firms.
A) all-inclusive
B) constructed only for the major divisions
C) revised monthly
D) constructed for each division
E) developed before the EFE Matrix

58) Which of these strategies is effective when the number of suppliers is small and the number of competitors is large?
A) Conglomerate diversification
B) Forward integration
C) Backward integration
D) Concentric diversification
E) Horizontal diversification

59) Which strategy seeks to increase market share of present products or services in present markets through greater marketing efforts?
A) Backward integration
B) Market penetration
C) Forward integration
D) Market development
E) Product development

60) All of the following situations are conducive to market development except
A) when an organization competes in a high-growth industry.
B) when new untapped or unsaturated markets exist.
C) when an organization is very successful at what it does.
D) when an organization's basic industry is becoming rapidly global in scope.
E) when an organization has excess production capacity.
61) Which strategy should an organization use if it competes in a no-growth or a slow-growth industry?
A) Backward integration
B) Retrenchment
C) Unrelated diversification
D) Related diversification
E) Divestiture

62) Which of the following is not an example of when an organization should use
an unrelated diversification strategy?
A) When revenues derived from an organization's current products or services
would increase significantly by adding the new unrelated, products.
B) When the new products have counter-cyclical sales patterns compared to an
organization's present products.
C) When an organization competes in a highly competitive and/or a no-growth
industry.
D) When an organization's present channels of distribution can be used to mar-
ket the new products to current customers.
E) When the organization has a strong management team.

63) Which chapter of the bankruptcy code applies to municipalities?
A) Chapter 9
B) Chapter 12
C) Chapter 8
D) Chapter 13
E) Chapter 7

64) The Family Farmer Bankruptcy Act of 1986 created
A) Chapter 13.
B) Chapter 9.
C) Chapter 8.
D) Chapter 7.
E) Chapter 12.

65) Under which strategy would you offer products or services to a wide range of customers at the lowest price available on the market?
A) Low-cost
B) Differentiation
C) Best-value
D) Low-cost focus
E) Best-value focus
66) Under which condition would a differentiation strategy be especially effective?
A) When the industry has many different niches and segments, thereby allowing
a company to pick a competitively attractive niche suited to its own resourc-
es.
B) When technological change is fast paced and competition revolves around
rapidly evolving product features.
C) When few, if any, other rivals are attempting to specialize in the same target
segment.
D) When industry leaders do not consider the niche to be crucial to their own
success.
E) When the target market niche is large, profitable and growing

67) Which of the following is not a reason joint ventures fail?
A) The venture may benefit the partnering companies but may not benefit the
customers who then complain about poorer service or criticize the companies
in other ways.
B) The venture may begin to compete more with one of the partners than the
other.
C) Stakeholders from both partners are equally satisfied.
D) Managers who must collaborate daily in operating the venture are not in-
volved in forming or shaping the venture.
E) The venture may not be supported equally by both partners.

68) What was the largest acquisition completed in 2007?
A) CVS acquiring Caremark Rx
B) AT&T acquiring BellSouth Corp
C) Linde acquiring BOC Group
D) Johnson & Johnson acquiring Pjizen Consumer Healthcare
E) Porsche acquiring Volkswagon

69) Which section of the SWOT Matrix involves matching internal strengths with
external opportunities?
A) The ST cell
B) The WT cell
C) The WO cell
D) The SW cell
E) The SO cell

70) Which strategies aim at improving internal weaknesses by taking advantage of
external opportunities?
A) ST
B) WO
C) SO
D) WT
E) SW

71) How many cells are in a SWOT Matrix?
A) Eight
B) Nine
C) Two
D) Four
E) Six

72) Which of the following is not a step of a SWOT Matrix?
A) Match strengths with external opportunities and record the resultant SO strat-
egies in the appropriate cell.
B) List the firm's key external threats.
C) Match internal weaknesses with external threats and record the resultant WT
strategies.
D) List the firm's external opportunities.
E) List the firm's external weaknesses.

73) Which of these is not a SPACE Matrix quadrant?
A) Aggressive
B) Defensive
C) Conservative
D) Competitive
E) Offensive

74) In the SPACE analysis, what does a (+6, +3) strategy profile portray?
A) A strong industry
B) A stable environment
C) A weak industry
D) An unstable environment
E) A weak financial position

75) For what type of company is the BCG Matrix ideal for analyzing?
A) All companies
B) Large companies
C) Companies with more than one division
D) Companies with annual sales of less than $1 million
E) Companies with annual sales greater than $1 million

76) An organization that has a low relative market share position and competes in
a slow-growth industry is referred to as a
A) dog.
B) star.
C) question mark.
D) cowboy.
E) cash cow.

77) According to the Grand Strategy Matrix, organizations in which .quadrant
have a strong competitive position but are in a slow-growth industry,
A) IV.
B) I.
D) V.
E) III.

78) The top row of a QSPM consists of alternative strategies derived from all of
these except
A) BCG Matrix.
B) CPM Matrix.
C) Space Matrix.
D) Grand Strategy Matrix.
E) IE Matrix.

79) How are objectives in the areas of profitability, growth and market share commonly established?
A) Geographic location
B) Customer groups
C) Business segment
D) Product
E) all of the above

80) _______ is not a major factor that commonly prohibits effective resource allocation.
A) Underprotection of resources
B) Lack of sufficient knowledge
C) Vague strategy targets
D) Reluctance to take risks
E) Organizational politics
81) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves exchanging
members of conflicting parties of that each can gain an appreciation of the
others point of view?
A) Resistance
B) Confrontation
C) Defusion
D) Avoidance
E) Compliance

82) Which approach for managing and resolving conflict involves playing down
differences between conflicting parties while accentuating similarities and
common interests?
A) Defusion
B) Resistance
C) Compliance
D) Avoidance
E) Confrontation

83) Why do changes in company strategy often require changes in the way an
organization is structured?
A) Structure dictates how resources will be obtained.
B) Structure dictates strategy.
C) Structure dictates how goals and objectives will be established.
D) Structure dictates how money is spent.
E) Structure dictates authority over projects.

84) What percentage of companies are reported to have some form of bonus plan?
A) 40 percent
B) 95 percent
C) 80 percent
D) 75 percent
E) 25 percent

85) Resistance to change can manifest itself through
A) filing unfounded grievances.
B) sabotaging production machines.
C) unwillingness to cooperate.
D) absenteeism.
E) all of the above
86) Which strategy could be best defined as an effective, multi-method technique of studying and altering a firm's culture?
A) Delivering
B) Benchmarking
C) Educative change strategy
D) Triangulation
E) Process management

87) What percent of strategies formulated are successfully implemented?
A) Approximately 66 percent
B) Less than 10 percent
C) Between 40 to 60 percent
D) About 30 percent
E) More than 80 percent

88) Why is market segmentation an important variable in the strategy-implementation process?
A) Company strategies do not require increased sales through new markets and
products.
B) It allows a firm to minimize per-unit profits and per-segment sales.
C) It directly affects marketing mix variables.
D) It allows a firm to operate with no resources.
E) all of the above

89) Which of the following is (are) true about two different market segments?
A) They are most effective when a firm squats between two segments.
B) They are always in different geographic locations.
C) They are usually incompatible.
D) They usually require different marketing strategies.
E) They can usually be served with the same marketing strategy.

90) What is a central strategy-implementation technique that allows an organization to examine the expected results of various actions and approaches?
A) Financial budgeting
B) EPS/EBIT
C) External analysis
D) TOWS analysis
E) Projected financial statement analysis
91) Which of these is the most common type of budgeting time frame?
A) Annual
B) Monthly
C) Daily
D) Every decade
E) Quarterly

92) What is a limitation of using financial budgets?
A) They are sometimes used as instruments of tyranny.
B) They can become a substitute for objectives.
C) They can hide inefficiencies if done only on precedent.
D) They can be so detailed that they are cumbersome and expensive.
E) all of the above

93) What best describes how much a company is worth?
A) Static
B) Known only to the firm's accountants
C) Explicit accounting standards
D) An exact science
E) An educated guess

94) What is the best definition of goodwill?
A) Value associated with benefits from environmental programs
B) Excess of current assets over liabilities
C) Value attached to the firms reputation
D) Premiums paid for acquisition
E) Excess of assets over liabilities

95) If success for one organizational department means failure for another department, then strategies may be
A) advantageous.
B) failures.
C) synergistic.
D) inconsistent.
E) inconsonant

96) Corrective actions are not needed when
A) changes have occurred in the firm's internal strategic position.
B) the industry is slowing down.20 Final Examination Strategic Management
C) the firm is not progressing satisfactorily toward achieving stated objectives.
D) external and internal factors have not significantly changed.
E) competitive factors are on the rise.

97) What is the basis for quantitative financial evaluation?
A) Financial ratios
B) Reduction in costs
C) The EPS/EBIT Analysis
D) Present value analysis
E) Capital Asset Pricing Model

98) Corrective action should do all of the following except
A) improve internal weaknesses.
B) avoid external threats.
C) capitalize upon internal strengths.
D) strengthen an organization's competitive position.
E) avoid external opportunities.

99) What aims to balance long term with short term concerns, financial with non-
financial concerns, and internal with external concerns?
A) Contingency planning
B) Measuring performance
C) reviewing Bases of Strategy
D) The Balanced Scorecard approach
E) Taking corrective action

100) Which type of auditors are specifically responsible for safeguarding the as-
sets of a company?
A) Research auditors
B) Government auditors
C) External auditors
D) Independent auditors
E) Internal auditors

BAM514 Unit-3

Question # 3. List and discuss the characteristics of the four ways in which an integrated global structure can be organized.

 

BAM514 Unit-2

Question # 1. In what ways might the American style of negotiation be misinterpreted in another culture?

600 words with 2 references.

BAM514 Unit4

       Question # 3. Discuss Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation as it relates to different countries around the world. What can we conclude and use in management, regarding this theory?

BAM560 Unit-1 Process of developing mission statement

Explain the process of developing a mission statement.

BAM560 Unit-1 Examination

Q1)  Which statement best describes intuition?
It alone should be used in decision making.
It represents a minor factor in decision making integrated with analysis.
It should be coupled with analysis in decision making.
It is better than analysis in decision making
It is management by ignorance.

Q2) In recent years, the speedy flow of information through technology has.
made it harder for people worldwide to see how others work and live
strengthened national boundaries and made countries more self-contained
created a borderless world with global competitors, customers, and citizens
ensured that the U.S. is unrivaled by other companies in all industries
made the real flow of financial activity align with political boundaries between countries

Q3) Anything that a firm does especially well compared to rival firms is referred to as:
competitive advantage
comparative disadvantage
opportunity cost
unsustainable advantage
an external opportunity

Q4) In mass retailing, big-box companies like Walmart, Best Buy, and Sears are:
gaining competitive advantage over smaller stores
participating in a dramatic shift to becoming bigger
increasing the square-footage of their retail locations
finding that less brick and mortar is better
noticing a sharp decline in online purchases

Q5) The fact that Apple has no manufacturing facilities of its own:
has caused it to build up massive debt on its balance sheet
has enabled it to remain financially lean with virtually no long-term debt
has been problematic for Apple in terms of debt
illustrates that having more fixed assets than rival firms can provide major competitive advantages in a global recession
means that it is in the same position as Sony

Q6) ________ allows firms to sell products, advertise, purchase supplies, bypass intermediaries,
 track inventory, and eliminate paperwork.
social networking
e-commerce
blogging
viral video
"Trading down"

Q7) The Internet has transferred power from ________ to ________.
businesses, individuals
governments, businesses
individuals, businesses
businesses, governments
individuals, governments

Q8) There is a dramatic shift in mass retailing to:
"trading up" and taking customers from more exclusive stores
selling only the most expensive merchandise
opening dramatically larger supercenters
operating stores with less square footage
cutting back on their online presence

Q9) The one factor that has most significantly impacted the nature and core of buying and selling in nearly all industries has been:
the Internet
political borders
corporate greed
customer and employee focus
the government

Q10) According to Drucker, which question is synonymous with asking "What is our mission?"
What is our business?
How can we improve ourselves?
What do we want to become?
Who are our stakeholders?
How can we increase profitability?

Q11) Which basic question should the vision statement answer?
What is our business?
How can we improve ourselves?
What do we want to become?
Who are our stakeholders?
How can we increase profitability?

Q12) In the process of developing a mission statement, it is important to involve:
as few managers as possible
as many managers as possible
upper-level management only
lower-level management only
the board of directors only

Q13) The process of developing a vision and mission statement often includes which of these as the first activity?
requesting that managers modify the current document
asking managers to read selected articles about mission statements
asking managers to prepare a mission statement for the organization
having a brainstorming session on whether the organization should have a mission d. statement
merging several mission statements into one document

Q14) After a draft mission statement has been developed, it is important to:
ask managers to read several articles about mission statements as background information
vote on the mission statement
ask managers to prepare a mission statement for the organization
ask managers to seek support for the mission statement from their subordinates
request modifications, additions, and deletions to the mission statement

Q15) What can be used to promote unbiased views and to manage the development of the mission statement more effectively?
an internal group
a committee of managers
command-and-control
surveys
an outside facilitator

Q16) According to Campbell and Yeung, what is/are most likely associated with behavior and the present?
mission
values
long-term objectives
vision
possibilities

Q17) A study by Rarick and Vitton found that firms with a formalized mission statement have ________ the average return on shareholders' equity than those firms without a formalized mission statement.
one-quarter
half
twice
three times
five times.

Q18) Businessweek reports that firms using mission statements have a ________ percent higher return on certain financial measures than those without such statements.
10
15
30
45
50

Q19) Which best expresses former Colgate CEO Reuben Mark's thoughts on vision?
It's becoming less important that a clear mission make sense internationally.
It's essential to drive home different messages in different cultures.
Keeping the vision simple will never rally everyone to the corporate banner.
Pushing one vision globally is essential.
Elevated missions or visions will alienate international markets.

Q20) When developing a mission statement, what is needed before people can focus on specific strategy formulation activities?
egotiation
compromise
eventual agreement
a and b only
all of the above

Q21) What is the best time to develop a mission statement?
when a firm is in decline
when the firm is successful
when the firm is in financial trouble
when the firm is in legal trouble
when the firm encounters competition

Q22) It is predicted that the United States will have how many racial or ethnic majorities by the year 2075?
none
one.
two
three
five.

Q23) The United States' population is:
getting younger and less white
getting younger and more white
getting older and less white
getting older and more white
remaining stable as to age and racial make up

Q24) The world population is expected to grow to an estimated ________ billion in 2054.
6
7
8
9
10

Q25) Hawaii, California, and ________ already have no majority race or ethnic group.
New York
New Jersey
New Hampshire
New Mexico
all of the above