C11 Lesson 3 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT.......(objective questions)

Lesson 3
Question 1        5 / 5 points
The fraction of the working-age population that is in the labor force is called the __________.
Question options:

employment rate

unemployment rate

labor force participation rate

nonresponse rate
Question 2        5 / 5 points
Economists say that the economy is at "fullemployment" when the __________.
Question options:

structural unemployment rate is zero

total unemployment rate is zero

frictional unemployment rate is zero

cyclical unemployment rate is zero
Question 3        5 / 5 points
The value of a dollar __________.
Question options:

is its purchasing power

remains constant over time

is its face value

is set by the government
Question 4        5 / 5 points
What does the Consumer Price Index (CPI. measure?
Question options:

prices of durable goods

prices of non-durable goods

the cost of living over time

the cost of replacing lost items
Question 5        5 / 5 points
What are the two critical measures of a nation's economic health?
Question options:

income and spending

sales and taxes

wages and raises

production and income
Question 6        5 / 5 points
The value of all final goods and services produced during a given time period measures a nation's __________.
Question options:

gross domestic product

net national product

consumer price index

net exports
Question 7        5 / 5 points
Economists define the unemployed as individuals who are __________.
Question options:

not currently working

not currently working but are actively looking for work

working but looking for a different job

working less than their desired amount of time
Question 8        5 / 5 points
Which of the following would be a macroeconomic question?
Question options:

How have the retirement benefits in the auto industry changed over time?

How has inflation increased over time?

How has the price of gold increased over time?

How has the number of commercial airline flights decreased over time?
Question 9        5 / 5 points
If Sam does not have a job and is not looking for work, he is considered __________.
Question options:

unemployed and in the labor force

unemployed and not in the labor force

not in the labor force

unemployed
Question 10        5 / 5 points
If you negotiated a salary based on an anticipated inflation rate of 4 percent, and the actual inflation rate turned out to be 6 percent, __________.
Question options:

the purchasing power of your real wages would be more than you anticipated

your employer would have gained at your expense

your real wage will increase, but your nominal wage will decrease

the purchasing power of your wages will not change, since purchasing power is based on your nominal wage
Question 11        5 / 5 points
The labor supply and demand most directly affect the level of __________ in an economy.
Question options:

people attending colleges

people requiring retraining

employment

welfare benefits
Question 12        5 / 5 points
Macroeconomics __________.
Question options:

studies the behavior of individual consumers, firms, and markets

studies the behavior of the economy as a whole

involves the interaction between different countries in specific markets

studies how computer automation has changed economics
Question 13        5 / 5 points
The Consumer Price Index (CPI. differs from a chain-weighted price index in that the CPI __________.
Question options:

requires calculation of GDP, while the chain-weighted index does not

measures the costs of a typical fixed basket of goods over time, while the chain-weighted index does not

allows for the goods consumed in an economy to change over time, while the chain-weighted index does not

compares the prices of all goods in one year to the prices of all goods in other years
Question 14        5 / 5 points
The index most widely used by the government and the private sector to measure changes in the cost of living is the __________.
Question options:

Producer Price Index

Consumer Price Index

the GDP deflator

the chain-weighted price index
Question 15        5 / 5 points
Suppose the stock of capital remains constant. By adding more labor, perhaps a second work shift, output __________.
Question options:

decreases

increases

remains the same

becomes more costly
Question 16        5 / 5 points
Suppose that nominal GDP in year 1 is 200 and nominal GDP in year 2 is 242. Assume that inflation is 10 percent per year. How fast did the economy grow between these two years?
Question options:

10 percent

12 percent

21 percent

42 percent
Question 17        5 / 5 points
The circular flow is used to make the point that __________.
Question options:

rising prices never occur during times of unemployment

unemployment only occurs during a recession

production generates income

households purchase factors of production from firms
Question 18        5 / 5 points
The unemployment rate is the number of unemployed people __________.
Question options:

divided by the number of people who are working

divided by the total working-age population

divided by the sum of the number of people who are working and the number of people who are looking for work

and the number of people working fewer than their desired number of hours, divided by the number of people who are working or looking for work
Question 19        5 / 5 points
The largest component of GDP is __________.
Question options:

government spending

consumption expenditures

private investment expenditures

net exports
Question 20        5 / 5 points
We measure gross domestic product by multiplying the quantities of goods by their prices because it allows us to __________.
Question options:

express the values of products in a common unit of measurement

correct for inflation

directly compare the output of one economy to that of another

calculate the total number of units of goods produced in an economy

C11 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT.........objective questions

Question 1        5 / 5 points
If a competitive market operates perfectly, it relies on __________.
Question options:

the number of people buying goods

the laws of supply and demand

how many products can be produced for sale

how much people are willing to pay for the products
Question 2        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.6, which shows David's and Celeste's individual supply curves for flower arrangements per week. Assuming David and Celeste are the only producers in the market, what is the market quantity supplied at a price of $30?
Question options:

200

250

300

350
Question 3        5 / 5 points
The big tradeoff is the tradeoff between __________.
Question options:

quantity demanded and quantity supplied

price and quantity demanded

efficiency and equity

total surplus and deadweight loss
Question 4        5 / 5 points
A change in the quantity demanded of a product is the result of a change in __________.
Question options:

the price of the product

the price of related goods

consumer income

the cost of producing the product
Question 5        5 / 5 points
What happens if the price of a product is below the equilibrium price?
Question options:

The buyers will stop purchasing a "cheap" product.

The producer will lower the price to sell more product.

There will be an excess demand for the product.

There will be a surplus of the product.
Question 6        5 / 5 points
If the equilibrium price of a good increases and the equilibrium quantity of the good decreases, we can conclude that __________.
Question options:

demand increased

demand decreased

supply increased

supply decreased
Question 7        5 / 5 points
A supply curve is defined as the relationship between __________.
Question options:

the price of a good and the quantity that consumers are willing to buy

the price of a good and the quantity that producers are willing to sell

the income of consumers and the quantity of a product that consumers are willing to buy

the income of consumers and the quantity of a product that producers are willing to sell
Question 8        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.6, which shows David's and Celeste's individual supply curves for flower arrangements per week. Assuming David and Celeste are the only producers in the market, if the market quantity supplied is 50, the price must be __________.
Question options:

$0

$10

between $10 and $20

$30
Question 9        5 / 5 points
The market demand curve __________.
Question options:

shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity that all consumers together arewilling to buy

is drawn assuming that variables such as income and tastes are variable

is drawn assuming that the number of consumers is variable

is drawn assuming that the selling price is fixed
Question 10        5 / 5 points
When consumers are willing to buy more than producers are willing to sell, __________.
Question options:

there is excess supply of the product in the market

there is excess demand for the product in the market

the market is in equilibrium

the demand curve will shift until the quantity supplied equals the quantity demanded
Question 11        5 / 5 points
When there is a change in the quantity demanded it means that __________.
Question options:

the hours the customer can buy products each day have increased

the number of products in inventory have increased

the quantity a consumer is willing to buy changes when the price changes

the selling price of the products has not changed
Question 12        5 / 5 points
Quantity of Frozen Latte-On-A-Stick Supplied
Price    Flo's Supply    Rita's Supply
1    0    0
2    0    3
3    4    6
4    9    9
5    15    12
Table 4.1

Refer to Table 4.1, which shows Flo's and Rita's individual supply schedules for frozen latte-on-a-stick. Assuming Flo and Rita are the only suppliers in the market, what is the market quantity supplied at a price of $2?
Question options:

0

2

3

5
Question 13        5 / 5 points
 

Refer to Figure 4.1, which shows Molly's and Ryan's individual demand curves for compact discs per month. Assuming Molly and Ryan are the only consumers in the market, what is the market quantity demanded at a price of $3?
Question options:

6

9

15

20
Question 14        5 / 5 points
When the price of apples goes up, __________.
Question options:

the demand for apples will decrease, ceteris paribus

the demand for apples will increase, ceteris paribus

the quantity of apples demanded will decrease, ceteris paribus

the quantity of apples demanded will increase, ceteris paribus
Question 15        5 / 5 points
A demand curve is defined as the relationship between __________.
Question options:

the price of a good and the quantity of that good that consumers are willing to buy

the price of a good and the quantity of that good that producers are willing to sell

the income of consumers and the quantity of a good that consumers are willing to buy

the income of consumers and the quantity of a good that producers are willing to sell
Question 16        5 / 5 points
 

Figure 4.2 illustrates the supply and demand for T-shirts. If the actual price of T-shirts is $7, there is an __________.
Question options:

excess demand of 8 T-shirts

excess supply of 8 T-shirts

excess demand of 10 T-shirts

excess supply of 10 T-shirts
Question 17        5 / 5 points
Suppose that the quantity of cars supplied exceeds the quantity of cars demanded. We would expect that __________.
Question options:

the price of cars will increase

the price of cars will decrease

the supply will increase (supply will shift to the right. to meet the demand

the demand will decrease (demand will shift to the left. to meet the supply
Question 18        5 / 5 points
If there is an advancement in the technology used to produce a product, what is the likely effect it may have on the supply?
Question options:

The company would not change its manufacturing.

More people would be needed to produce the product.

It would decrease the supply.

It would increase the supply.
Question 19        0 / 5 points
When demand increases and the demand curve shifts to the right, equilibrium price __________ and equilibrium quantity __________.
Question options:

increases; increases  (Incorrect)

increases; decreases

decreases; increases

decreases; decreases
Question 20        5 / 5 points
A change in quantity supplied of a product is the result of a change in __________.
Question options:

consumer income

the state of production technology

the cost of producing the product

the price of the product

C10 Online Exam 8_11 Score 100%............objective questions

Question-1
Which type of Windows updates below includes new features and extends the functionality of the operating system?
  A.  Critical
  B.  Optional
  C.  Recommended
  D.  Service Pack

Question 2 of 205.0 Points
Which of the events below would automatically create a new restore point on your Windows 8 computer?
  A.  Deleting the temporary files
  B.  Installing a new printer
  C.  Downloading music files
  D.  Creating a new Internet favourite

Question 3 of 205.0 Points
What is the primary limitation of free versions of antivirus applications?
  A.  They don't protect in real time.
  B.  They only perform quick scans.
  C.  They cannot scan the Windows directory.
  D.  They only install on 64-bit operating systems.

Question 4 of 205.0 Points
You have just purchased a brand new Windows 8 computer. What should you do right away with the Administrator account?
  A.  Disable it
  B.  Enable EFS for the account
  C.  Encrypt its logon
  D.  Change its username

Question 5 of 205.0 Points
Which selection below lists two operating systems that include BitLocker?
  A.  Windows XP Professional and Windows 7 Professional
  B.  Vista Ultimate and Windows 8 Enterprise
  C.  Windows 7 Professional and Windows 8 Professional
  D.  Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 8 Professional

Question 6 of 205.0 Points
Which of the actions below will not create more room on your hard drive?
A.  Defragging your hard drive
  B.  Uninstalling an application
  C.  Deleting temporary Internet files
  D.  Deleting image and video files

Question 7 of 205.0 Points
Which of the instances below is an example of a Trojan horse?
  A.  An attachment in an email that is really a malicious file
  B.  A link in an email that downloads a virus
  C.  An executable file that replicates throughout the network
  D.  A computer game that creates a backdoor into your computer

Question 8 of 205.0 Points
Which type of Windows updates below is strictly security-related?
  A.  Critical
  B.  Optional
  C.  Recommended
  D.  Service Pack

Question 9 of 205.0 Points
You want to run CHKDSK and have it repair any errors it identifies, if possible. What is the command you would type?
  A.  CHKDSK /f
  B.  CHKDSK /r
  C.  CHKDSK /e
  D.  CHKDSK /RD

Question 10 of 205.0 Points
Which type of updates should be installed in a test environment before being installed in a live enterprise environment?
  A.  Recommended Updates
B.  regular and optional
  C.  Service Packs
  D.  Security updates

Question 11 of 205.0 Points
You are having trouble cleaning your computer for a troublesome virus. You decide to try to clean your computer while in safe mode. How do you access the menu to boot into safe mode?
  A.  Press the F5 key before the computer posts.
  B.  Press the F8 key before the computer posts.
C.  Press the F8 key after the computer posts.
  D.  Press the F9 key after the computer boots the operating system.

Question 12 of 205.0 Points
Which statement below is not true about EFS?
  A.  It can only be implemented on an NTFS partition.
  B.  It requires a user to type in a PIN.
  C.  It is supported by the Windows operating system.
  D.  It doesn't require TPM compatibility.

Question 13 of 205.0 Points
What is a limiting factor of EFS when compared to BitLocker?
  A.  It only works on 32-bit operating systems.
  B.  It only works with a public certificate.
  C.  It only works under the Administrator account.
  D.  It only works at the file or folder level.

Question 14 of 205.0 Points
How is a worm different from a virus?
  A.  It only targets the windows operating system.
  B.  It only monitors Internet behavior and is not malicious.
  C.  It doesn't require human intervention to spread.
  D.  It is only distributed through email messages.

Question 15 of 205.0 Points
Your computer is once again out of hard drive space and you want to see which folders are consuming the most space on your hard drive. Which application below will do this?
  A.  Ccleaner
  B.  TreeSize
  C.  MalwareBytes
  D.  Auslogics Disk Defrag

Question 16 of 205.0 Points
You install a new antivirus application on your computer and it keeps quarantining a legitimate application file in that application's directory. How can you prevent this from happening while still being able to protect your system?
  A.  Run the AV application in safe mode so the application is turned off.
B.  Create a custom scan and exclude the application's directory.
  C.  Run the AV application in defrag mode during all scans.
  D.  Exclude all .exe file types when scanning the computer.

Question 17 of 205.0 Points
You are configuring the local Windows Firewall on your Windows 7 computer. Which network category needs to have the most stringent rule set?
  A.  Public
  B.  Private
  C.  Home
  D.  Domain

Question 18 of 205.0 Points
You own a laptop with Windows 8 installed on it. How is someone able to access your files by installing another copy of Windows 8?
  A.  Use BitLocker with the new OS to copy and paste the files to a USB drive.
  B.  Use the Administrator account of the new OS to take ownership of the files.
  C.  Decrypt the files using the encryption key of the new OS on the system volume.
  D.  Decrypt the files using the newly installed certificate from the new OS.

Question 19 of 205.0 Points
You run a Defrag utility on your computer to see if you need to defrag your system volume. What fragmentation level represents a threshold at which point you need to defrag it?
A.  3%
B.  5%
C.  10%
D.  15%

Question 20 of 205.0 Points
In order for BitLocker to protect the System Volume without the aid of an external drive, your computer must:
A.  be 32-bit.
B.  host a virtualized enabled BIOS.
C.  be TPM-compatible.
D.  have a USB 3.0 interface.

C06J Business Ethics Part II...........objective questions

1 .which of following is false?
A. Traditionally male-dominated professions have lower mean salaries than non-gendered positions.
b. Whites consistently have the lowest portion of their population living in poverty.
c. Construction and extraction is the most equitable between the sexes of the industries surveyed.
d. Individuals with professional degrees earn more, on average , than those with doctorates.

2.WHICH IS THE BEST DESCRIPTION OF INTENTIONAL DISCRIMINATION?
A. The conscious and deliberate discriminatory act on an individual
B. The discrimination brought about by the unconscious biases of an individuals
c. the acts of discrimination made by the few heads of an organization
d. the discrimination that results from the routine and process of large groups.

3. Which of the following is one definition of the term ethics?
A. the principles of conduct governing an individual or a group
B. the process of adhering to all laws and regulations
C. an alternate term for morality
D. a term describing why people are good or evil

4. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A KEY CONSIDERATION FOR AN EMPLOYER WHEN IMPINGING ON AN EMPLOYEE'S PRIVACY?
a. relevance
b.consent
c. methods
d. utility

5. BEING OFFERED A GIFT DURING CONTRACT NEGOTIATIONS IS LIKELY AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT?
a. subjective conflict of interest
b. objective conflict of interest
c. commercial bribe
d. commercial extortion

6. The term for the worldwide process by which the economic and social systems of nations become connected is Called_______
a. connectivity
internationalization
c. Multinationalism
d. Globalization

7. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ETHICAL ISSUES DID NOT ARISE AS A RESULT OF THE INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION?
a. worker exploitation in factories
b. environmental damage
c. manipulation of the new financial markets
d. customers privacy issues

8. WHAT HAPPENED WHEN STANLEY MILGRAM TESTED SUBJECT'S WILLINGNESS TO FOLLOW THE ORDERS OF AN AUTHORITY FIGURE TO GIVE ELECTRIC SHOCKS TO SOMEONE ELSE?
a. No subjects were willing to harm other people
b. One- third of subjects were willing to harm other people
c. Two-third of subjects were willing to harm other people.
d. 90% of the subjects were willing to harm other people.

9. WHAT DOES RULE UTILITARIANISM LOOK AT?
a. The amount of utility produced by a particular action
b. the moral rules of a particular action
c. the people affected by a particular action
d. the legality and legal rules of a particular action

10. WHAT TYPE OF JUSTICE INVOLVES THE IMPOSITION OF PENALTIES?
a. retributive justice
b. distributive justice
c. reparative justice
d. compensatory justice

11. WHY DID THE FORD MANAGERS DECIDE NOT TO FIX THE GAS TANK ON THE PINTO?
a. because they believed it was best for society as a whole
b. because they did not have enough time or budget
c. to save money on the cost of fixing the tanks
d. because they were acting in self-interest

12. KARL MARX OFFERS THE MOST CRITICAL VIEW OF MODERM PRIVATE PROPERTY AND FREE MARKET INSTITUTIONS. MARX CLAIMS THAT FREE -MARKET CAPITALISM NECESSARILY PRODUCES_________
Extremes of inefficiency
Extremes of efficiency
Extremes of equality
Extremes of inequality

13. WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT CONCEPT IN INTERNATIONAL TRADE THEORY?
a. free trade
b. absolute advantage
c. comparative advantage
d. means of production

14. SO-CALLED PRIMITIVE SOCIETIES USED ECONOMIC SYSTEMS BASED ON________
a. smalll business organization
b. tradition-based societies
c. barter system
d. none of the above

15. IN A PERFECTLY FREE ECONOMY , ALL BUYERS AND SELLERS ARE WHAT?
a. utility users
b. utility creators
c. utility maximizers
d. utility diminishers

16. WHEN A COMPANY SELL A BUYER CERTAIN GOODS ONLY ON CONDITION THAT THE BUYER ALSO PURCHASE OTHER GOOD FROM THE FIRMS , THIS KNOWN As______
a. manipulation of supply
b. exclusive dealing arrangement
c. price discrimination
d. tying arrangement

17. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE TERM FOR A SITUATION IN WHICH FIRMS LIMIT THEIR OUTPUT?
a. market allocation
b. bid rigging
c. exclusive dealing arrangement
d. manipulation of supply

18 WHAT IS ONE REASON WHY BUSINESSES ARE ABLE TO IGNORE THEIR EFFECTS ON THE ENVIRONMENT FOR SO LONG?
a. Businesses tend to view the effects of their activities as negligible and ignore them.
b. Governments had no way to stop them.
c. Businesses  did not know they were polluting.
d. Businesses used bribes for many years as incentives to government to ignore the effects.

19. OZONE DEPLETION IS A SERIOUS THREAT TO OUR SURVIVAL, WHICH GASES EXTREMELY HARMFUL TO THE OZONE LAYER?
a. carbon dioxide
b. nitrogen
c. chlorofluorocarbons
d. hydrocarbons

20. __________ IS PRIVACY WITH RESPECT TO A PERSON'S INNER'S LIFE. THIS INCLUDES THE PERSON'S THOUGHTS AND PLANS, PERSONAL BELIEFS AND VALUES, FEELINGS AND WANTS.
a. physical privacy
b. Psychological privacy
c. Personal privacy
d. Spiritual Privacy

21. EVEN THOUGH ADVERTISING ISSUES ARE COMPLEX, THEY MUST INCLUDE_______
a. social effects
b. effects on desire
c. effects on belief
d. all of the above

22. Which of the following is NOT a basic element of discrimination in employment?

A. It must be an action by a person in a position of authority.
B. It must be a decision not based on individual merit.
C. The decision must derive from racial or sexual prejudice.
D. The decision must have a harmful impact on the interest of employees.

23. Which of the following forms of employee discrimination is NOT legally protected in the United States?
A. discrimination by ability
B. discrimination by sex
C. discrimination by nationality
D. discrimination by race

24. risks are sometimes unavoidable and acceptable, as long as
a. employees are not coerced
b. employees are fully compensated for assuming them and they do so freely and knowingly
c. no one else has the expertise to do the work
d. all of the above

25. which of the following is a valid consideration for determining a fair wage?
a. the firm's profits
b. previous wage of the applicant
c. gender of the applicant
d. the nationality of the applicant

C06J Business Ethics Part I......HR

1 . Which is NOT a requirement for a facility to be considered a sweatshop?
a. unmitigated health and safety hazards
b. high temperature
c. poor working conditions
d. unfair wages

2. which organizational layer can be said to generate specific plans and instructions from broad directions?
a. operating layer
b. middle management
c. top management
d. none of the above

3.. Whistle blowing can have what consequence?
a. being ostrcized at work
b. loss of employemnt
c. negative reputation
d. all of the above

4. How have most businesses adapted to information technology developments?
a. they have become larger and more unwidely
b. they have become more hierarchical
c. they have flatter, smaller and more nimble.
d. they have become more profitable

5. How much of General Electric's revenues is from outside the United States?
a. none
b. one quarter
c. almost half
d. more than half

6. UNOCAL worked witih the Burmese army to push the pipeline using
a. low-wage workers
b. forced labor
c. unethical land reclamation schemes
d. none of the above

7 How did Eli Lilly test its pharmaceuticals?
a. by recruting individuals from a wide swathe of society
b. by recruting the homless
c. by recruting prisoners
d. by recruting middle-class workers

8. Which philosopher's theory of moral virtue states that virtues are habits that enables a person to live according to reason, by habitually choosing the mean between extremes in actions and emotions?

a. Immanuel Kant
b. Pincoffs
c. Aristotle
d. St. Thomas Aquinas

9. What is the " hardwired" Intention Principle?
a. Harming by action is worse that harming by omission
b. Harming by omission is worse than harming by ignorance
c. Harming by physical contact is worse that without physical contact.
d. Harming anyone for any reason is wrong

10. What is the main purpose of rights?
a. to provide everyone with necessities such as food and water
b. to provide justice and fairness to all
c. to enable individual to choose freely and to protect those choices
d. to keep people from harming each other

11. which of the following is an ethical rule governing contracts?
a. the contract must be fair
b. the contract must be enforceeable
c. the contract must be specific
d. the contract must not be immoral

12 According to the International Labor organization, how many children are estimated to be working today?
a. 500,00.00
b. 13 million
c. 122 million
d. 218 million

13.During the financial crisis in 2008 , Georgia W. Bush asked U.S. Congress to pass legislation to create a Troubled Asset Relief Program(TARP) in the amount of ______
a. $1 trillion
b. $90 billion
c. $80 billion
d. $70 billion

14. According to Marx, what are the only sources of income in a capitalist system?
a. sale of one's own labor
b. sale of one's means of production and private property
c. sale of one's labor and ownership of means of production
d. profiting from the labor of others and ownership of means of production

15. What did Marx believe to be the actual function of government?
a. encourage nationalism
b. protect the interest of the ruling class
c. spread wealth within the borders of the country
d. set up a system of labor

16. China and Singapore are example of what types of economies?
a. ones that favor free markets and globalization
b. ones that favor individuals property rights
c. one that favor government intervention
d. one that favor competition

17. In the ADM case, what did ADM and the other companies do to fix the market prices for lysine?
a. they bullied the buyers into accepting a specific price
b. They agreed on the price for which the companies sold the product, and they agreed on limits of production.
c. they each agreed to produce only a certain amount of lysine per year
d. They agreed on the price for which the companies would sell the product, but they were free to produce as much as they liked.

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly free economy?
a. There are only a few buyers and sellers who have a substantial share of the market.
b. Goods being sold in the market are extremely similar to one another
c. the government regulates prices of goods being bought and sold in the market.
d. None of the above

19. Which view regarding oligopolies argues that oligopolies stifle competition and should be broken up?
a. the antitrust view
b. the do- nothing view
c. the regulation view
d. none of the above

20. Which of the following would negatively impact the effectiveness of market theory consumer protection?
Low prices
Monopolies
High prices
Many competitors

21. Which of the following would be considered a deceptive advertisement?
A. One in which the author accidentally includes information he or she knows to be false
B. One in which the author purposely includes information he or she knows to be false
C. One in which the author includes false information that is obviously false to the audience
D. All of the above
22.  The social cost view improves utility in what way?
A. Improves employment through greater manufacturing output
B. Decreases workplace accidents through government regulation
C. Internalizes the costs of injuries and accidents to the manufacturer
D. All of the above

23. Which is NOT a view on the duty of a business to its customers?
A. duty of care view
B. social costs view
C. contract view
D. normative view


24. According to a 2001 study, how many tons of toxic pesticides do U.S. companies export to other nations every hour?
a. 1 ton
b. 90 tons
c. 45 tons
d. 200 tons

25. Which, on average, will have the largest negative impact on expected income?
A. being female
B. being Hispanic
C. being black
D. being male

C05L Business Communication Part I..........OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Question 1
In its annual survey of corporate recruiters, the Graduate Management Admissions Council routinely finds that ________ tops employers' list of complaints about potential MBA job recruits.
A) lack of communication ability
B) inability to solve problems
C) poor cognitive skills
D) unfamiliarity with new channels of sales

Question 2
In terms of his career, Ryan's communication skills ________.
A) will neither help him find a job nor help him keep it
B) won't make any difference in his salary potential
C) will be perceived as important by his employers, but they cannot be translated into savings for his company
D) will make him a valuable employee


Question 3
In which of the following situations can good business communication skills have a positive impact on your life?
A) negotiating a better deal on a car
B) driving through busy streets
C) keeping your personal valuables safe
D) calculating your monthly expenses

Question 4
Which of the following is an example of unsuccessful communication?
A) ordering an item online and deciding, after it arrives, that you don't like it
B) asking a friend for advice and then trying to apply it to your problem
C) receiving instructions on how to put something together and then assembling the item
D) making an urgent request on a colleague's voice mail and getting no reply for a week

Question 5
The active listening skills used when you listen to the spoken word are ________ when you "listen" to what people say in their writing.
A) inapplicable
B) equally useful
C) much more required
D) far less effective

Question 6
Which of the following paraphrases the literal content of a given statement?
a. Are you concerned that people are turning in their reports late?
b. You sound frustrated about people waiting until the last minute to submit their status reports.
c. You are saying that you'd like us to have our status report turned in a couple of days before the date of the monthly meeting .
d. Are you concerned that there won't be time for the supervisor to review the reports before the meeting?

Question 7
Which of the following terms best represents a culture that values punctuality and efficiency?
A) High-context culture
B) Collectivist culture
C) Low-context culture
D) Monochronic culture

Question 8
Which of the following is most likely to be the desired outcome of a persuasive message for a product?
The recipient will decide to purchase the product.
The recipient will be impressed by the function of the product.
The recipient will throw away their older version of the product.
The recipient will compare the product with other similar ones.


Question 9
_______ is the ability to influence an audience to agree with your point of view, accept your recommendation, or grant your request
A) Aggression
B) Persuasion
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Congregation

Question 10
 Which of the following is an example of an external source?
Memos sent to the employees of a company
Financial reports published by a company
Company databases
Industry journals.


Question 11
Which is the following is an example of an internal source?
A) a newspaper
B) an industry journal
C) a memo from a supervisor
D) web-based search tools

Question 12
Shannon needs to deliver some information quickly to a large group of people. Which of the following would be the best medium for her to use?
A) email
B) telephone
C) memo
D) letter

Question 13
Which of the following best articulates the business results of a message regarding a new work schedule?
A) to suggest the possibility of implementation a flexi-time schedule in your office
B) to describe your boss how your life would improve with a flexi-time schedule
C) to improve employee productivity and job satisfaction with a more flexible schedule
D) to have your boss agree to implement a more efficient schedule for employee

Question 14
While having lunch with a friend she tells you that her office recently implemented flex-time hours. It has been a positive change at her work place, and you think that it would be great to have this at your office too. You decide to approach your boss about this possibility .In the context of such a message, the thought that this change might decrease employee productivity would be seen as :
a.    An audience benefit
b.    A potential resistance
c.    A refutation
d.    A concession

Question 15
Cassie is putting together a stand-alone presentation. Which of the following criteria should be satisfied by this presentation?
D) Cassie must include message headlines summarizing the key point of each slide

Question 16
Audiences easily get lost and bored if they cannot anticipate the twists and turns the presentation may take. To avoid this, the presenter should ________
A) open the presentation with a genuine question
B) establish rapport with the audience at the beginning of the presentation
C) provide a framework for the presentation during the opening of the presentation
D) open the presentation with a an anecdote

Question 17
You are writing an appeal letter to solicit funds for your non-profit organization. In this message you praise the audience for its past donations ,emphasize how its contributions are needed now more than ever, and how these contributions benefit the people your organization serves . This message appeals to the audience's.
a. Sense of self-esteem
b. Quest for self-actualization
c. Need for love
d. Desire for safety

Question 18
Why are bad news messages challenging to compose?"

a. they must be lengthy and vague to avoid legal consequences

b. they require you to achieve a number of goals that are incompatible at first glance

c. they make it impossible to maintain your audiences goodwill 
d. they run the risk of alienating your audience

Question 19
Gavin purchased an MP3 player at a large electronics retailer. When his device stopped working he emailed the store to inquire about a repair or replacement device. Gavin received a reply from a customer service representative, thanking him for his inquiry and resolving to try to help him. The representative stated that it might be the manufacturer, not the store itself, who should handle this type of problem. She thanked him again for his business and encouraged him to continue shopping at the retailer. Which of the following statements accurately describes the customer service representative's job of delivering bad news?
A) Her message was insensitive and likely offended Gavin.
B) Her message provided all the required information to Gavin
C) Her message was unclear and will likely result in further communication from Gavin.
D) Her message effectively balanced all four goals of communicating bad news.

Question 20
Which of the following questions is a part of the analyzing stage of the ACE process for delivering bad news ?
a. Have I avoided legal complications?
b. Is the bad news stated clearly and sensitively ?
c. Should I include an apology
d. Should I begin with the bad news or lead up to it ?


Question 21
Which of the following involves the use of a secondary source?
A) Talking to the entry-level employees about why the duties are not being properly executed
B) Surveying other companies who outsource the kinds of duties you are looking to outsource
C) Reading a journal article about the perceived versus actual cost effectiveness of outsourcing
D) Discussing the situation with your boss


Question 22
If you perform a search using the phrases "health insurance plans" and "freelance workers" the search engine will:

a. give those sites that include either exact phrase

b. give you only those sites that include both phrases

c. give those sites that include any of theses five words anywhere on a page 
d. give you those sites that include the first phrase and exclude the second


Question 23
When you conduct a search using most search engines, you can use __________ as a wild-card symbol within a phrase to represent an unknown word.
A question mark (?)
An asterisk (*)
An ampersand (&)
A minus symbol (-)

Question 24
which of the following is true of a proposal?

(A) It is simple to prepare.

(B) It does not need to provide details on how to implement itself.

(C) It requires you to develop a persuasive appeal.

(D) It should not address costs.

Question 25
As you begin to write a proposal regarding technological needs in your work place, you think about its purpose. In this case, how do you propose to meet the need you are addressing?

a. By continuing to oversee the technology needs yourself
b. By allowing technology issues to go unaddressed
c. By hiring a technology company to oversee the technology needs
d. By training some employees in the company to handle the technical issues

Human Resource MGT 681D Discussion Question 5-1

DISCUSSION QUESTION 5-1

MH681 Health Care Human Resources Management

 

Lesson 5: Labor Relations

 

 

Upon completion of the Required Readings, write a thorough, well-planned narrative answer to the following discussion question.  Rely on your Required Readings and the Lecture and Research Update for specific information to answer the discussion question, but turn to your original thoughts when asked to apply, evaluate, analyze, or synthesize the information.  Your Discussion Question response should be both grammatically and mechanically correct, and formatted in the same fashion as the question itself.  If there is a Part A, your response should identify a Part A, etc.  In addition, you must appropriately cite all resources used in your responses and document in a bibliography using APA style.

Discussion Question 1 (50 points)

 

Visit the following website: www. http://www.aflcio.org/. Then discuss five (5) reasons why employees decide to join or form a union. Cite examples offered in your text or in the above-named website. (50 points)  (A 2-page response is required.)