BUSI504 Mid Term Exam

Question 1 (2 points)
 Research shows that about 93 percent of a message comes from nonverbal communication.
Question 1 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 2 (2 points)
One of the more serious problems associated with collaborative writing is dealing with conflicts that arise.
Question 2 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 3 (2 points)
Face-to-face communication is almost always the best way a manager should deliver a message.
Question 3 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 4 (2 points)

Four concepts that help to understand the use of mediated communication are: bandwidth, perceived personal closeness, feedback, and the symbolic interactionist perspective
Question 4 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 5 (2 points)

An attempt to use empathic listening is often enough to open communication.
Question 5 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 6 (2 points)

Active and passive are two types of listening.
Question 6 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 7 (2 points)

An appropriate strategy for negative situations is the indirect one.
Question 7 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 8 (2 points)

A report writer should gather data before developing solutions or action items.
Question 8 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 9 (2 points)

An organization's culture can encourage or discourage information flow.
Question 9 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 10 (2 points)

Managerial communication behavior represents ritualistic responses to the need to appear competent, intelligent, legitimate, and rational.
Question 10 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 11 (2 points)

The way in which managers communicate messages is influenced by the type of authority they are perceived to have.
Question 11 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 12 (2 points)

The communication process consists of an exchange of messages that are comprised of words.
Question 12 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 13 (2 points)

Diversity issues are found in the areas of gender, culture, age, and education.
Question 13 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 14 (2 points)

The most likely audience question when reading written communication is "What is the purpose of this message?"
Question 14 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 15 (2 points)

Ethics in business is constantly evolving to match emerging norms and values and varies from country to country.
Question 15 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 16 (2 points)

The groundwork or preliminary effort a report writer makes before the report is written often takes more time than actually writing the report.
Question 16 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 17 (2 points)

When nonverbal signals contradict verbal ones, the verbal ones are usually the ones to trust.
Question 17 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 18 (2 points)

Attire is an important part of the first impression we form when meeting others, and is often the key to initial credibility.
Question 18 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 19 (2 points)

Managers should discourage their subordinates from listening to the grapevine because the information is usually false.
.
Question 19 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 20 (2 points)

The difference between positive and negative wording is more a matter of content than emphasis.
Question 20 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 21 (5 points)

Major factors affecting communication contingencies are ___________________
Question 21 options:
1)     product quality, diversity, subordination, and competition
2)     ethics, diversity, product quality, and competition
3)     time, diversity, ethics, and competition
4)     competition, creative analysis, product quality, and ethics

Question 22 (5 points)
Which movement has been shown to positively influence the flow of conversation?
Question 22 options:
1) mimicry
2)     affect display
3)     illustrating
4)     striding
Question 23 (5 points)

Contemporary managerial communication stresses the importance of which of the following?
Question 23 options:
   

1)     listening
2)     keeping written records
3)     giving orders
4)     maintaining discipline
Question 24 (5 points)

Which of the following is not a strategy for emphasizing a main idea?
Question 24 options:
   
1)     repeating it
2)     highlighting it in boldface
3)     using the "you" viewpoint
4)     being indirect
Question 25 (5 points)
   
Which type of internal correspondence may be in either direct or indirect order?
Question 25 options:
1)     form memos
2)     requests for action
3)     announcements
4)     guideline memos
Question 26 (5 points)

The most frequently used medium of communication within an organization is the
Question 26 options:
   

1)     letter
2)     memo
3)     brochure
4)     bulletin board
Question 27 (5 points)

Managers must take the following into account when sending a message.
Question 27 options:
1)     the receiver's relationship and status differences with the manager
2)     the receiver's interest and emotional state
3)     the receiver's knowledge and communication skills
4)     all of the above choices are correct
Question 28 (5 points)

Nonverbal behaviors used during conversations to signal to a partner to slow, stop and even "wait your turn" are known as _____________
Question 28 options:
1)     regulating
2)     contradicting
3)     accenting
4)     substituting
Question 29 (5 points)
 All of the following are common purposes for managerial communication except ________
Question 29 options:
1)     to gain information
2)     to share information
3)     to achieve status
4)     to persuade
Question 30 (5 points)

The information transmission capacity of the available sensory channels is known as ____________
Question 30 options:
1)     capability
2)     perspective
3)     sensuality
4)     Bandwidth
Question 31 (5 points)
 Organizational communication focuses on ___________________
Question 31 options:
1)     internal behavior
2)     two or more people exchanging perceptions
3)     formal and informal meetings
4)     how a group of tasks is linked to complete a job
Question 32 (5 points)
 Letter reports differ from memo reports according to
Question 32 options:
1)     format, tone, and audience
2)     introduction, body, and conclusion
3)     direct, neutral, and indirect order
4)     all of the choices are correct
Question 33 (5 points)

The contingency approach to management communication requires managers to _________
Question 33 options:
1)     see the interdependence of various aspects of jobs, organizations, and communication
2)     use the same communication approach at all times for consistency
3)     use creative analysis only in times of emergency
4)     not let the situation determine the method of communication
Question 34 (5 points)

A memo report
Question 34 options:
1)     always uses direct order
2)     employs headings
3)     always includes bulleted lists
4)     does not include visual aids
Question 35 (5 points)
 Strategic managerial listening requires paying attention to _____________________
Question 35 options:
1)     the spoken words
2)     the nonverbal cues
3)     the total environment
4)     all choices are correct
Question 36 (5 points)

The manager who wants to understand someone's internal frame of reference should use which type of listening?
Question 36 options:
1)     casual
2)     factual
3)     sympathetic
4)     empathic

Question 37 (5 points)
 The type of listening most common in business meetings and conferences is
Question 37 options:
1)     casual
2)     factual
3)     empathic
4)     sympathetic

Question 38 (5 points)
 How short should most routine e-mail messages be?
Question 38 options:
1)     One sentence
2)     One screen
3)     One paragraph
4)     One word

Question 39 (5 points)
The team leader in a collaborative writing group is responsible for ________________
Question 39 options:
1)     setting the guidelines for the group
2)     coordinating the team's collaborative efforts
3)     resolving conflicts among individuals and functional departments
4)     both coordinating the team's collaborative efforts and resolving conflicts among individuals and functional departments

Question 40 (5 points)
Common problems with technology include ________________
Question 40 options:
1)     sensory overload
2)     narrow bandwidth
3)     reduced opportunities for feedback
4)     all of the above choices are correct

 

Question 41 (8 points)

Provide an example in which technology has changed a person's job.

 

Question 42 (8 points)

How can a writer de-emphasize the negative in messages?

Question 43

What are some typical strategies for empowering employees?

 

Question 44

What are the four things a manager should do to become physically and psychologically prepared to listen? Discuss each of these.

Question 45

What are the most common benefits of enterprise social networks?

Question 46

According to the discussion presented in this chapter, what is the difference between interactive and active listening?

Question 47

What are two examples of internal noise and two examples of external noise that can damage a listener's competency at work?

Question 48

You are trying to indicate interest in the other person while listening. What should you be doing with your eyes, head, trunk, and hands?

Question49

What purposes does the transmittal document serve?

 

 

Question 50

What are four strategic advantages of written managerial communication?

BUSI502 Week 2 Quiz

QUIZ
Question 1 (2 points)
 Organizational, cultural, and control variables are considered the ________ used by decision makers to effect change in their organization.
1)     collaboration tools
2)     managerial levers
3)     events
4)     IS
5)     organization objectives

Question 2 (2 points)
The ____________ is a plan articulating where a business seeks to go and how it expects to get there.
1)     vision statement   
2)     mission statement
3)     stakeholder statement
4)     stockholder statement
5)     business strategy

Question 3 (2 points)
Which is not a question that can be used to understand organizational design?
1)     Who holds the decision rights to critical decisions?
2)     What are the characteristics, experiences, and skill levels of the people within the organization?
3)     Where is the organization's headquarters located?
4)     What are the key business processes?
5)     What is the culture of the organization?

Question 4 (2 points)
The "Managerial Levers" concept is useful for the following reasons:
1)     Management can find what "levers" to push to force people to do what they want.
2)     Management should not make a change unless they align multiple issues, such as tasks, measures, values, incentives, etc.
3)     System investments need to be financially highly leveraged.
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 5 (2 points)
A general manager should:
1)     Rely on IS personnel to make IS decisions
2)     Ignore how IS are used and managed
3)     Have a deep technical knowledge of IS
4)     Understand the use and consequences of technologies relevant to the business
5)     Not be expected to ask or understand technology related questions

Question 6 (2 points)
When an organization qualifies its product or service in a way that allows it to appear unique in the marketplace, this is called:
1)     Focus
2)     Differentiation
3)     Cost Leadership
4)     Business Strategy
5)     Mission

Question 7 (2 points)
Organizational, cultural, and control variables are considered the ____________ used by decision makers to effect change in their organization.
1) collaboration tools
2) managerial levers
3) events
4) IS
5) organization objectives

Question 8 (2 points)
Business strategies based on hypercompetition focus on customer satisfaction and profit maximization but also build in a component of business intelligence. Business intelligence helps an agile organization to:
1)     Predict and respond to new opportunities
2)     Use current information technologies less extensively
3)     Manage internal challenges
4)     React to supplier demands
5)     Collaborate

Question 9 (2 points)
GE recognized that it could only sustain its competitive advantage for a limited time as competitors attempted to outmaneuver them.  What was the model that Welch applied to help solve this problem?
1)     Destroy your organization
2)     Grow your organization
3)     Destroy your system
4)     Grow your system
5)     Destroy your business

Question 10 (2 points)
L.L. Bean is an online/catalog retail company that aggressively uses tools like instant messaging to communicate with customers regarding potential purchases and uses Facebook for branding activities. This use of technology supports which strategy?
1)     IS strategy
2)     Business strategy
3)     Organizational strategy
4)     Mission strategy
5)     Social business strategy

Question 11 (2 points)
The managerial levers identifies the crucial, interrelated components for designing an organization. The components include all of the following EXCEPT:
1)     Decision rights
2)     Social media
3)     Business processes
4)     Incentives and rewards
5)     Performance measurement and evaluation

Question 12 (2 points)
By using IS to achieve economies of scale and generate operating efficiencies, Walmart epitomizes which one of Porter's generic strategies?
1)     Differentiation
2)     Focus
3)     Cost leadership
4)     Broad focus
5)     Cost differentiation

Question 13 (2 points)
Through the use of various technologies, a ski resort tracks the slopes each customer skis and the times he or she skis them.  Skiers then have the ability to view this information online, and can choose to seamlessly share their accomplishments on Facebook. In addition, photographers positioned at the resort post pictures on Facebook for the skier. This ski resort has worked hard to develop a strong:
1)     IS Strategy
2)     Social business strategy
3)     Business strategy
4)     Organizational strategy
5)     Customer strategy

Question 14 (2 points)
Technology guru Tim O'Reilly said this about the publishing industry: "To adapt, publishers need to cannibalize their own business, experimenting with new forms, new formats, and new business models." This statement is consistent with:
1)     Generic framework
2)     Focus strategy
3)     Hypercompetition
4)     Direct strategy
5)     Porter's generic strategies

Question 15 (2 points)
While information systems can be used to gain a strategic advantage, they have inherent risks. Hershey Foods, for example, crippled its Halloween sales when its complex IS system failed to support its supply and inventory needs during peak production season. This is an example of which specific IS risk?
1)     Awaking a sleeping giant
2)     Implementing IS poorly
3)     Demonstrating bad timing
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages

Question 16 (2 points)
 Suppose Zara has a linked supply chain with Silk City, a fabric supplier. Zara and Silk City use IT to seamlessly exchange data, communicating requirements as well as delivery expectations. The relationship between Zara and Silk City is best described as:
1)     Strategic alliance
2)     Co-opetition
3)     Collaboration
4)     Dependence
5)     Competition

Question 17 (2 points)
Kodak was once the largest supplier of photographic film. In 2004 it was dropped from the Dow Jones Industrial Average after having been listed for 74 years. Kodak failed to use IT to fend off which one of the following of Porter's 5 competitive forces?
1)     Bargaining power of suppliers
2)     Threat of substitute products
3)     Potential threat of new entrants
4)     Bargaining power of buyers
5)     Industry collaboration

Question 18 (2 points)
Many companies like Zara use POS to capture information on what has sold, to whom and when. This use of technology to realize efficiencies supports which one of Porter's value chain activities?
1)     Outbound Logistics
2)     Marketing & Sales
3)     Operations
4)     Service
5)     Human resources

Question 19 (2 points)
Two automobile manufacturers are working together to develop hybrid technology. This type of relationship between the two automobile manufacturers is best described as:
1)     Co-opetition
2)     Strategic alliance
3)     Competition
4)     Collaboration
5)     Business strategy

Question 20 (2 points)
The Nike + iPod Sports Kit is a sensor in your shoe that syncs with your iPod and provides details about your workout. This inter-organizational relationship affords both Nike and Apple a business advantage.  This relationship between Nike and Apple is best described as:
1)     Strategic alliance
2)     Co-opetition
3)     Collaboration
4)     Dependence
5)     Competition

Question 21 (2 points)
A firm releases a new technology only to have a competitor implement a similar technology with more features and value to the consumer. This would be which type of risk?
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Implementing IS poorly

Question 22 (2 points)
Which of the following is NOT a primary activity of the Value Chain model?
1)     Inbound Logistics
2)     Operations
3)     Outbound Logistics
4)     Purchasing
5)     Marketing and Sales

Question 23 (2 points)
This risks of using information resources include all of the following except:
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Implementing IS poorly
4)     Missing cooperative opportunities
5)     Failing to deliver what users want

Question 24 (2 points)
Which one of the following is not considered to be a primary activity of the value chain of a firm?
1)     Inbound Logistics
2)     Service
3)     Sales & Marketing
4)     Technology
5)     Operations

Question 25 (2 points)

Which one of the following risks can threaten the IS of a company in a highly regulated industry such as financial services or health care?
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Implementing IS poorly

Question 26 (2 points)
Zara strategically uses information technologies to do all of the following EXCEPT:
1)     Bring new products quickly to market, meeting customer demands
2)     Support a continuous flow of information from stores to manufacturers to distributors
3)     Maintain a rich, centralized repository of customer data
4)     Build silos of responsibilities with limited interaction between store managers, designers and market specialists
5)     Keep its inventory levels very low (relative to other retailers)

Question 27 (2 points)
Which model is best used to understand the ways in which information technologies allow a firm to both attain and sustain a competitive advantage?
1)     Porter's Competitive Forces
2)     Porter's Value Chain
3)     The Information Systems Strategy Triangle
4)     The Network Effect
5)     The Resource-Based View

Question 28 (2 points)
The supply chain:
1)     Points out the concept of weak link in an ordering process
2)     Helps us understand how value is built inside a single firm.
3)     Is composed of several value chains linked into a larger chain (a chain within a chain).
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 29 (2 points)
The organizational structure of Tata Consulting Services (TCS) is a  ___________ organizational structure.
1)     hierarchical
2)     networked
3)     matrix
4)     flat
5)     zero time

Question 30 (2 points)
This newer organizational design is designed to be highly flexible so that resources can be configured quickly to respond to changing demands.
1)     Up time organization
2)     Social networked organization
3)     Hierarchical organization
4)     Matrix organization
5)     Elastic enterprise

Question 31 (2 points)
 IS plays three important roles in management control processes.  These processes are data collection, evaluation, and _______________.
1)     transformation
2)     management
3)     communication
4)     implementation
5)     conversion

Question 32 (2 points)
In which type of organizational design do middle managers do the primary information processing and communication function, telling subordinates what to do and then reporting the outcome to senior management?
1)     Flat
2)     Networked
3)     Hierarchical
4)     Matrix
5)     Hybrid

Question 33 (2 points)
Cognizant's organizational structure was ________, but realized as its organization grew and its services became more complicated that a __________ structure for the organization was more appropriate.
1)     hierarchical, networked
2)     matrix, networked
3)     flat, matrix
4)     hierarchical, matrix
5)     flat, hierarchical

Question 34 (2 points)
Traditional organizations have one of four types of organizational design.  What are these four structure types?
1)     Traditional, flat, matrix, technology
2)     Hierarchical, flat, matrix, networked
3)     Matrix, networked, flat, information
4)     Matrix, flat, networked, traditional
5)     Social, networked, matrix, hierarchical

Question 35 (2 points)
Which of the following is not an organizational design variable?
1)     IT Infrastructure
2)     Decision rights
3)     Informal networks
4)     Structure
5)     Formal reporting relationships

Question 36 (2 points)
Effective, cross-cultural communication in today's global and "flattened" world is:
1)     Easy to achieve
2)     Difficult to achieve
3)     Of little consequence to the organizational strategy
4)     Achieved by using the best available technologies
5)     No longer an issue for managers

Question 37 (2 points)
All of the following help to develop informal networks that play an important role in an organization EXCEPT for:
1)     Job rotation
2)     Company softball team
3)     Virtual communities
4)     Performance reviews
5)     Attendance at a conference

Question 38 (2 points)
Organizational design is all about making sure that _________ are properly allocated, reflecting the structure of formal reporting relationships.
1)     decision rights
2)     business processes
3)     values
4)     incentives
5)     IS

Question 39 (2 points)
A matrix organization:
1)     Can involve multiple bosses and multiple teams
2)     Requires quite a bit of communication to be successful
3)     Were rare for quite a while but have become more common in recent years
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 40 (2 points)
At Zara, decision rights for ordering have been granted to whom?
1)     Regional managers
2)     Headquarters
3)     Store managers
4)     Central production
5)     The commercial team

Question 41 (ESSAY)
Consider the brief description of the elastic enterprise. What is an example of a control system that would be critical to manage for success in the elastic enterprise? Why?

BM350 Marketing Management Part II

Question 1
The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________.
A) measuring consumer brand loyalty
B) identifying and establishing brand positioning
C) planning and implementing brand marketing
D) measuring and interpreting brand performance

Question 2
The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors."
A) copyright
B) trademark
C) slogan
D) brand

Question 3
________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.
A) Brand positioning
B) Market research
C) Competitive advantage
D) Competitor analysis

Question 4
The ________ attack offers the firm an opportunity to diversify into unrelated products, into new geographical markets, and leapfrogging into new technologies.
A) bypass
B) flank
C) frontal
D) guerrilla

Question 5
Sony is an unusual market leader. It gives its customers new products that they have never asked for (e.g., Walkmans, VCRs, video cameras, CDs). This makes Sony a(n) ________ firm.
A) market-driven
B) market-driving
C) operations-driven
D) vision-driven

Question 6
________ is a period of rapid market acceptance and substantial profit improvement.
A) Stagnancy
B) Introduction
C) Maturity
D) Growth

Question 7
Which of the following is true about market-nichers?
A) They are market followers in small markets.
B) They tend to have high manufacturing costs.
C) Their return on investment exceeds that in larger markets.
D) A nicher achieves high volume as against a mass marketer that achieves high margin.

Question 8
A(n) ________ is another name for identifying shifts in market segments that are causing gaps to develop, then rushing in to fill the gaps and developing them into strong segments.
A) frontal attack strategy
B) flanking strategy
C) encircling strategy
D) counteroffensive strategy

Question 9
An alternative to being a market follower in a large market is to be a leader in a small market. This type of competitor is called a ________.
A) marketing king
B) marketnicher
C) segment king
D) guerilla marketer

Question 10
________ is the ability of a company to prepare on a large-scale basis individually designed products, services, programs, and communications.
A) Mass customization
B) Reverse engineering
C) Interoperability
D) Backward compatibility

Question 11
A ________ is the set of all products and items a particular seller offers for sale.
A) product line
B) product mix
C) product extension
D) product system

Question 12
BRZ Shoes targets the youth market with vibrant, visually appealing ads in modern styles. BRZ ads appeal to the ________ dimension of brand experience.
A) sensory
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) intellectual

Question 13
The ________ determinant of service quality refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to convey trust and confidence in the service they provide.
A) conscientious
B) assurance
C) empathy
D) reliability

Question 14
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of characteristics: ________, tangibility, and use.
a.availability
b.affordability
c.aesthetics
d. durability

Question 15
What types of goods are purchased frequently, immediately, and with minimum effort by the consumers?
A) specialty goods
B) shopping goods
C) convenience goods
D) durable goods

Question 16
Costs that do not vary with production levels or sales are known as:
a. overhead costs
b. variable costs
c. average costs
d. opportunity costs

Question 17
After determining its pricing objectives, a firm should take what next logical step in setting its pricing policy?
It should analyze its competitors' costs, prices, and offers.
It should select its pricing method.
It should select its final price.
It should determine the demand for its product.

Question 18
A company that is looking to maximize its market share would do well to follow ________ pricing.
A) markup
B) market-penetration
C) market-skimming
D) target-return

Question 19
Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?
A) selecting a pricing method
B) selecting the pricing objective
C) determining demand
D) estimating cost

Question 20
A firm that is plagued with overcapacity, intense competition, or changing wants would do better if it pursues ________ as its major objective.
A) market skimming
B) product-quality leadership
C) survival
D) profit maximization

Question 21
Which of the following is a form of mass communications channel?
A) interactive marketing
B) personal selling
C) public relations
D) word-of-mouth marketing

Question 22
_____ questions ask about the consequences of the buyer's problems.
a. Situation
b. Problem
c. Implication
d. Need-payoff

Question 23
________ is the time necessary to prepare a promotional program prior to launching it.
A) Sell-in time
B) Link time
C) Setup time
D) Lead time

Question 24
________ is a measure of communications effectiveness that describes the percentage of target market exposed to a communication.
A) Frequency
B) Reach
C) Width
D) Depth

Question 25
Which of the following marketing communications tools is most influential at the maturity stage of a product's life cycle?
A) sales promotions
B) direct marketing
C) advertising
D) publicity

BM380 Assignment 4

ASSIGNMENT 4

BM380 Marketing Research

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the "Format Requirementsʺ page located at the beginning of this learning guide for specific format requirements.

 

Case 1

 

Objective: Select the appropriate research design.

 

You have just graduated from college and are a newly hired researcher trainee at Georgia Metro Research. You have been asked to determine the appropriate research design for two new clients, as follows.

 

Client A is a consumer packaged goods manufacturer with a well-established brand name. The client has focused on manufacturing and distribution for years while the marketing program has been set on "auto pilot." All had worked fine, though there was a hint of emerging problems when, in the preceding year, market share had fallen slightly. Now, our client has just reviewed the current market share report and notices that over the previous 12 months, its share has gradually eroded 15 percent. When market share falls,clients are eager to learn whyand to take corrective action. In these situations we know immediately the problem is that we don't know what the problem is. There are many possible causes for this slippage. You need to determine the research design needed.

 

Client B is in a very competitive category with equal market share of the top three brands. Our client is convinced that it has changed every marketing mix variable possible except for package design. Since the three competitive brands are typically displayed side-by-side, the client wants us to determine what factors of package design (e.g., size, shape, color, texture) cause an increase in awareness, preference for, and intention to buy the brand. What do you recommend for the appropriate research design?

 

1.      What research design would you recommend for each of these clients?

 

2.      For the research design you selected for eachclient, explain why you believe your choice of design is the correct choice.

 

 

Case 2

 

Objective: Select the appropriate sampling plan.

 

Client A

 

Honda USA is interested in learning what its 550 U.S. dealers think about a new service program Honda provided to the dealers at the beginning of last year. Honda USA wants to know if the dealers are using the program and, if so, what they like anddislike about the program. Honda USA does not want to survey all 550 dealers, but wants to ensure that the results are representative of all the dealers.

 

Client B

 

A researcher has the task of estimating how many units of a new, revolutionary photocopy machine (it does not require ink cartridges and is guaranteed not to jam) will be purchased by business firms in Cleveland, Ohio, for the upcoming annual sales forecast. She is going to ask about their likelihood of purchasing the new device, and for those "very likely" to purchase, she wants respondents to estimate how many machines their company will buy. She has data that will allow her to divide the companies into small, medium, and large firms based on number of employees at the Cleveland office.

 

1.      Of the four probability sampling methods that the researcher could use, what sampling plan should be used for each of these clients?

 

2.      Briefly discuss your reasoning for your choice of sampling plan for each case.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

BM380 Assignment 8

ASSIGNMENT 8

BM380 Marketing Research

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the "Format Requirementsʺ page located at the beginning of this learning guide for specific format requirements.

 

Writing the Marketing Research Report

 

All of the work is almost done. You have designed your research project; collected and prepared your data; and analyzed the results. It is time to communicate your marketing research findings. In order to do so, you must be able to address the following.

 

1.      Discuss the relative importance of the marketing research report to other stages in the marketing research process.

 

2.      Review the components of the elements of a Marketing Report. Then identify and differentiate the three major sections of a marketing research report.

 

3.      Distinguish among the elements of results, conclusions, and recommendations.

 

4.      What are some alternate ways researchers may report findings? What are some important things researchers should keep in mind when using alternate or innovative reporting vehicles?

BM380 Lesson 1 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
When a researcher is called in after the management has defined the problem, the researcher should:
Question options:

a)     bring in a fresh, unbiased view of the problem statement.


b)     accept management's definition of the problem and start the study.


c)     ensure that the research is done with maximum accuracy in the shortest possible time.


d)     turn the management's statement of the problem into a generally defined research objective.

Question 2
In discussing the structure of the marketing research industry, the textbook authors define an internal supplier firm as one that:
Question options:

a)     makes research decisions based primarily upon information supplied by the internal reports system.


b)     is organized in a staff relationship to other internal departments.


c)     provides syndicated services, but only to members of the syndicate.


d)     has its marketing research provided by an entity, such as a marketing research department, within the firm.

Question 3
Which of the following is a breach of ethics?
Question options:

a)     Extending the time for the conclusion of a research project to meet standards


b)     Seeking help from experts outside the company free-of-cost on nonconfidential matters


c)     Using a company's research proposal for competitive bidding


d)     Seeking the help of researchers outside the company on nonconfidential matters

Question 4
Which of the following statements best illustrates the service-dominant logic for marketing philosophy?
Question options:

a)     Marketing decision makers should know their firm's core competencies.


b)     Marketing decision makers need to know how to precisely measure service satisfaction.


c)     Marketing decision makers must be able to directly impact ROI.


d)     The quality of internal service levels is more important than the quality of external service levels.

Question 5
__________ are statements that are considered true for the purposes of argument or investigation.
Question options:

a)     Maxims


b)     Hypotheses


c)     Aphorisms


d)     Assumptions

Question 6
Information gaps are discrepancies between:
Question options:

a)     the information collected by a researcher and by a marketer.


b)     the information obtained from primary sources and secondary sources.


c)     a researcher's and a manager's information states.


d)     the current information level and the desired level of information.

Question 7
A marketing research proposal contains:
Question options:

a)     important assumptions made by the researcher.


b)     the action standards for a project.


c)     the timetable for a research project.


d)     problem symptoms associated with research.

Question 8
The marketing concept is an important philosophy for marketing managers because it dictates:
Question options:

a)     the amount of quarterly profits a firm will earn.


b)     the market share a firm will earn.


c)     day-to-day decisions that managers will make.


d)     whether or not the firm will reach its sales quota.

Question 9
The definition of a construct that describes the actions to be carried out for the construct to be measured empirically is known as a(n):
Question options:

a)     ostensive definition.


b)     contextual definition.


c)     operational definition.


d)     theoretical definition.

Question 10
Akron's Children's Hospital hired research firm, Marcus Thomas, LLC, to determine the most effective communication messages to use in a new ad campaign being developed by the hospital. This was an effort in:
Question options:

a)     target market selection.


b)     product research.


c)     pricing research.


d)     promotion research.

Question 11
Based on the AMA's definition of marketing research, which of the following is NOT one of the uses of marketing research?
Question options:

a)     To identify and define marketing opportunities and problems


b)     To solve general, not specific, marketing problems


c)     To generate, refine, and evaluate marketing actions


d)     To monitor marketing performance

Question 12
The difference between basic research and applied research is that basic research is conducted to:
Question options:

a)     determine the most appropriate basic price for new products.


b)     determine the most efficient basic distribution channels for products.


c)     expand our knowledge, rather than solve a specific problem.


d)     determine the most basic desired features in new products.

Question 13
Owners/proprietors of small firms are more likely to take advantage of:
Question options:

a)     specialized internal research teams.


b)     research agencies.


c)     informal departments organized around budget categories.


d)     do-it-yourself research.

Question 14
Which of the following professional organizations is devoted to improving the quality of the marketing research industry and to ensuring the future of the marketing research profession?
Question options:

a)     AMA (American Marketing Association)


b)     MRA (Marketing Research Association)


c)     QRCA (Q Research Council & Association)


d)     AAPOR (American Association for Public Opinion Research)

Question 15
Professional organizations try to prescribe ethical behavior for members by creating:
Question options:

a)     representatives in churches to influence future researchers.


b)     codes of ethical behavior.


c)     lobbyists who fight for higher ethical standards in government.


d)     examples of poor ethical behavior in other professions.

Question 16
The key reason that the marketing concept has been recognized as the "right" philosophy is that it:
Question options:

a)     is well-established in marketing literature.


b)     has been recommended by successful marketing executives.


c)     always focuses on the consumer.


d)     does not rely on high-pressure selling.

Question 17
Which of the following is the best definition of marketing research? Marketing research is:
Question options:

a)     the activity of analyzing secondary information and providing executives with timely reports.


b)     the process of designing experiments that provide decision makers with causal information.


c)     the linking of consumers with information managers.


d)     the process of designing, gathering, analyzing, and reporting information that may be used to solve a specific marketing problem.

Question 18
Firms that collect information, store it on a common database, and make it available to multiple subscribers are called:
Question options:

a)     internal subscription services.


b)     syndicated data service firms.


c)     packaged services firms.


d)     internal supplier firms.

Question 19
__________ satisfies the need for companies to identify and test new products to replace products which are at the end of their product life cycles.
Question options:

a)     Target market selection


b)     Product research


c)     Distribution research


d)     Promotion research

Question 20
To develop the "right strategy" to succeed in business, managers must make the right decisions; and in order to make the right decisions, they must have objective, accurate, and timely:
Question options:

a)     reports about the competition.


b)     reports about customers' wants and needs.


c)     evidence of the number and sizes of market segments.


d)     information.


Done

BM380 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1
Question 1
Which of the following is the best description of research design?
Question options:

a)     A set of advance decisions that makes up the master plan specifying the methods and procedures for collecting and analyzing the needed information


b)     A marketing term or concept involved in the marketing management problem that will be researched


c)     The specific pieces of information which are necessary to solve the problem at hand


d)     A list from which sample elements are drawn from the sample, which contains all of the elements in the population being studied

Question 2
A researcher presenting secondary data as if it were primary data collected by the researcher is an egregious example of an ethical lapse in what area of sensitivity in planning research design?
Question options:

a)     Recommending a more costly design than is needed


b)     Designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients


c)     Misrepresenting sampling methods


d)     Wrongfully gaining respondent cooperation to reduce costs

Question 3
What type of research design does the textbook state should almost always be used in research studies?
Question options:

a)     Causal research


b)     Exploratory research


c)     Explicit research


d)     Exhaustive research

Question 4
The various types of research design include:
Question options:

a)     exploratory, exploitive, and competitive.


b)     deductive, descriptive, and exploitive.


c)     exploratory, causal, and competitive.


d)     exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

Question 5
External secondary data may be grouped into which three sources?
Question options:

a)     Published, syndicated services data, and databases


b)     Published, unpublished data, and other electronic sources


c)     Syndicated services data, external data, and complex data


d)     Fields, records, databases

Question 6
How can it be determined if an experiment is valid?
Question options:

a)     The observed change in the dependent variable is in fact due to the independent variable.


b)     The results of the experiment apply to the real world outside the experimental setting.


c)     The results do not account for the effects of extraneous variables.


d)     Both a and b

Question 7
Which of the following is an objective of research?
Question options:

a)     To gain background information and to develop hypotheses


b)     To measure the state of a variable of interest (for example, level of brand loyalty)


c)     To test hypotheses that specify the relationships between two or more variables (for example, level of advertising and brand loyalty)


d)     All of the above

Question 8
What type of research design should a researcher use if he or she wishes to determine the effect of a change in price on the sales of a particular brand?
Question options:

a)     Causal


b)     Exploitive


c)     Longitudinal


d)     Exploratory

Question 9
Longitudinal studies can be described as techniques that:
Question options:

a)     measure the population at only one point in time.


b)     develop an understanding of a phenomenon in terms of "if-then" conditional statements.


c)     search for and interpret existing information relevant to the research problem.


d)     repeatedly measure the same sample units from the population over a period of time.

Question 10
What type of research design should a marketing researcher use to find out how many customers there are, what brands they buy and in what quantities, which advertisements they recall, what are their attitudes toward the company, and who is the competition?
Question options:

a)     Exploratory research


b)     Descriptive research


c)     Causal research


d)     Explicit research

Question 11
Ray Kroc, a milk-shake machine salesman, noticed that one restaurant in California burned up many milk-shake machines. He inferred that the restaurant was meeting the needs of the market better than other restaurants. His observation illustrates the use of:
Question options:

a)     observational deduction.


b)     exploratory research.


c)     explanatory research.


d)     causal research.

Question 12
All the following are areas of ethical sensitivity in planning research design EXCEPT:
Question options:

a)     recommending a more costly design than is needed.


b)     designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients.


c)     misrepresenting sampling methods.


d)     basing the research design on the results of secondary data.

Question 13
Which of the following represents an application of secondary data?
Question options:

a)     Predicting broad changes in culture


b)     Selecting a street location for a new car wash


c)     Economic-trends forecasting


d)     All of the above are applications of secondary data.

Question 14
Which of the following was NOT discussed in the textbook as an advantage of using secondary data?
Question options:

a)     May be obtained quickly


b)     May be obtained in any form desired by the researcher


c)     Is relatively inexpensive


d)     Is usually available

Question 15
Which of the following is a potential use of test marketing?
Question options:

a)     To test the sales potential for a new product


b)     To test variations in the marketing mix for a product


c)     To test the sales potential for a new service


d)     All of the above

Question 16
Which of the following would be classified as a part of internal secondary data?
Question options:

a)     Internal database


b)     Online information database


c)     Demographic data within a company's target market


d)     Any government data

Question 17
What type of test marketing should be used when a firm wants to test the product and/or marketing mix variables through the company's normal distribution channels?
Question options:

a)     Controlled test markets


b)     Electronic test markets


c)     Simulated test markets


d)     Standard test markets

Question 18
Which of the following best represents the criteria discussed by the textbook authors to be used in selection of a test market city?
Question options:

a)     Representativeness, isolation, and control of distribution and promotion


b)     Representativeness, isolation, and cost


c)     Representativeness, existing company presence, and control of promotion


d)     Representativeness, cost, and control of competitor's intelligence

Question 19
Packaged services differ from syndicated data services. In the former, each client is provided with:
Question options:

a)     data shared from a common database.


b)     no data.


c)     intermittent service.


d)     the same service as a result of a common process.

Question 20
Appropriate methods for conducting exploratory research would include:
Question options:

a)     secondary data analysis.


b)     experiments.


c)     sample surveys.


d)     longitudinal research.