BUSI530 Week 4 Discussion 5

In addition to the protections afforded employees by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, most states have statutes that prohibit discrimination in employment, housing, etc.

• Research your state's statutes and provide the name of the applicable anti-discrimination (or "human rights") statute, the agency responsible for enforcing its provisions, and what types of discrimination are covered by the statute.

 

BUSI530 Week 3 Discussion 3

In its 2013-2016 Strategic Enforcement Plan, the EEOC set forth six priority enforcement areas it would pursue. Subsequently, it updated the SEP for Fiscal Years 2017-2021.

• What are the six priority enforcement areas identified in the original SEP?
• What two areas were added to the "emerging issues" priority in the updated SEP?
• Which area or areas you do feel are most important today? Why do you feel this/these area(s) are most important?

BUSI530 Week 2 Discussion 2

The Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986, as amended in 1994, extends some right of privacy to employees when sending and receiving e-mail messages on the employer's computer system and calls made and received on employer-owned cell phones.

However, the statute provides several exceptions that permit employers to intercept and/or monitor employee e-mail, Internet, and cell phone use at work.

• Describe your current (or previous) employer's policy regarding employee use of e-mails, Internet, and phones for personal matters while at work.
• Be sure to indicate if the policy is a formal, written policy, or an informal policy.
• In addition, is the policy administered in a uniform and consistent manner?

BUSI530 Week 2 Assignment 1

Instructions

For this assignment, assume you are the owner of a small business in the Midwest with a sales force of ten people whose territories cover five states. Your sales force is commission-based, so their earnings depend on whether they exceed or fall short of their monthly sales quotas, which are determined by the company. At the time a salesperson joins the company, you have them sign an agreement acknowledging that they are independent contractors, not employees. The agreement prohibits them from representing any of your competitors, although they may do work for non-competing businesses. They must perform their sales duties themselves, and may not hire assistants without your approval and at no additional cost to your company. They are not reimbursed for travel, food, or lodging expenses. For convenience, they have access to cubicles at your main office, along with a laptop and cell phone, although they are not required to use the facilities or equipment. They do not receive benefits, such as sick leave, vacation, and holidays. They are paid monthly, and no payroll taxes or social security deductions are withheld from their checks. Since they are on the road a lot, you carry liability insurance. Your insurance broker told you that if they are injured while performing their duties, they could sue the company, so you told your workers' compensation carrier that they are employees so they would be covered by workers' compensation insurance. Although the salespeople are not required to report their hours worked each month, they are expected to meet or exceed sale quotas and complete monthly reports, indicating the number and names of clients contacted, follow-up calls, and related information documenting their activities. If they failed to meet their monthly sales quotas, they must provide a written explanation.

• Based on the above information, prepare a 4-6 page, double-spaced essay indicating whether the salespeople would more likely be considered as independent contractors or employees, based on the IRS 20-Factor Test.
• Please post by Sunday evening at 11:59 p.m. CT.
• The assignment covers material from the text for Week 2. Be sure to read the assignment carefully.
• You should prepare the assignment using the following guidelines:
1. A 12-point Times New Roman or similar business font,
2. Submitted in Word format (docx, doc, or rtf file formats),
3. Style and citations should follow the 6th edition of the APA Manual.
• The assignment is worth 150 points.

 

 

 

 

BUSI504 Mid Term Exam

Question 1 (2 points)
 Research shows that about 93 percent of a message comes from nonverbal communication.
Question 1 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 2 (2 points)
One of the more serious problems associated with collaborative writing is dealing with conflicts that arise.
Question 2 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 3 (2 points)
Face-to-face communication is almost always the best way a manager should deliver a message.
Question 3 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 4 (2 points)

Four concepts that help to understand the use of mediated communication are: bandwidth, perceived personal closeness, feedback, and the symbolic interactionist perspective
Question 4 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 5 (2 points)

An attempt to use empathic listening is often enough to open communication.
Question 5 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 6 (2 points)

Active and passive are two types of listening.
Question 6 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 7 (2 points)

An appropriate strategy for negative situations is the indirect one.
Question 7 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 8 (2 points)

A report writer should gather data before developing solutions or action items.
Question 8 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 9 (2 points)

An organization's culture can encourage or discourage information flow.
Question 9 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 10 (2 points)

Managerial communication behavior represents ritualistic responses to the need to appear competent, intelligent, legitimate, and rational.
Question 10 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 11 (2 points)

The way in which managers communicate messages is influenced by the type of authority they are perceived to have.
Question 11 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 12 (2 points)

The communication process consists of an exchange of messages that are comprised of words.
Question 12 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 13 (2 points)

Diversity issues are found in the areas of gender, culture, age, and education.
Question 13 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 14 (2 points)

The most likely audience question when reading written communication is "What is the purpose of this message?"
Question 14 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 15 (2 points)

Ethics in business is constantly evolving to match emerging norms and values and varies from country to country.
Question 15 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 16 (2 points)

The groundwork or preliminary effort a report writer makes before the report is written often takes more time than actually writing the report.
Question 16 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 17 (2 points)

When nonverbal signals contradict verbal ones, the verbal ones are usually the ones to trust.
Question 17 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 18 (2 points)

Attire is an important part of the first impression we form when meeting others, and is often the key to initial credibility.
Question 18 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 19 (2 points)

Managers should discourage their subordinates from listening to the grapevine because the information is usually false.
.
Question 19 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 20 (2 points)

The difference between positive and negative wording is more a matter of content than emphasis.
Question 20 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 21 (5 points)

Major factors affecting communication contingencies are ___________________
Question 21 options:
1)     product quality, diversity, subordination, and competition
2)     ethics, diversity, product quality, and competition
3)     time, diversity, ethics, and competition
4)     competition, creative analysis, product quality, and ethics

Question 22 (5 points)
Which movement has been shown to positively influence the flow of conversation?
Question 22 options:
1) mimicry
2)     affect display
3)     illustrating
4)     striding
Question 23 (5 points)

Contemporary managerial communication stresses the importance of which of the following?
Question 23 options:
   

1)     listening
2)     keeping written records
3)     giving orders
4)     maintaining discipline
Question 24 (5 points)

Which of the following is not a strategy for emphasizing a main idea?
Question 24 options:
   
1)     repeating it
2)     highlighting it in boldface
3)     using the "you" viewpoint
4)     being indirect
Question 25 (5 points)
   
Which type of internal correspondence may be in either direct or indirect order?
Question 25 options:
1)     form memos
2)     requests for action
3)     announcements
4)     guideline memos
Question 26 (5 points)

The most frequently used medium of communication within an organization is the
Question 26 options:
   

1)     letter
2)     memo
3)     brochure
4)     bulletin board
Question 27 (5 points)

Managers must take the following into account when sending a message.
Question 27 options:
1)     the receiver's relationship and status differences with the manager
2)     the receiver's interest and emotional state
3)     the receiver's knowledge and communication skills
4)     all of the above choices are correct
Question 28 (5 points)

Nonverbal behaviors used during conversations to signal to a partner to slow, stop and even "wait your turn" are known as _____________
Question 28 options:
1)     regulating
2)     contradicting
3)     accenting
4)     substituting
Question 29 (5 points)
 All of the following are common purposes for managerial communication except ________
Question 29 options:
1)     to gain information
2)     to share information
3)     to achieve status
4)     to persuade
Question 30 (5 points)

The information transmission capacity of the available sensory channels is known as ____________
Question 30 options:
1)     capability
2)     perspective
3)     sensuality
4)     Bandwidth
Question 31 (5 points)
 Organizational communication focuses on ___________________
Question 31 options:
1)     internal behavior
2)     two or more people exchanging perceptions
3)     formal and informal meetings
4)     how a group of tasks is linked to complete a job
Question 32 (5 points)
 Letter reports differ from memo reports according to
Question 32 options:
1)     format, tone, and audience
2)     introduction, body, and conclusion
3)     direct, neutral, and indirect order
4)     all of the choices are correct
Question 33 (5 points)

The contingency approach to management communication requires managers to _________
Question 33 options:
1)     see the interdependence of various aspects of jobs, organizations, and communication
2)     use the same communication approach at all times for consistency
3)     use creative analysis only in times of emergency
4)     not let the situation determine the method of communication
Question 34 (5 points)

A memo report
Question 34 options:
1)     always uses direct order
2)     employs headings
3)     always includes bulleted lists
4)     does not include visual aids
Question 35 (5 points)
 Strategic managerial listening requires paying attention to _____________________
Question 35 options:
1)     the spoken words
2)     the nonverbal cues
3)     the total environment
4)     all choices are correct
Question 36 (5 points)

The manager who wants to understand someone's internal frame of reference should use which type of listening?
Question 36 options:
1)     casual
2)     factual
3)     sympathetic
4)     empathic

Question 37 (5 points)
 The type of listening most common in business meetings and conferences is
Question 37 options:
1)     casual
2)     factual
3)     empathic
4)     sympathetic

Question 38 (5 points)
 How short should most routine e-mail messages be?
Question 38 options:
1)     One sentence
2)     One screen
3)     One paragraph
4)     One word

Question 39 (5 points)
The team leader in a collaborative writing group is responsible for ________________
Question 39 options:
1)     setting the guidelines for the group
2)     coordinating the team's collaborative efforts
3)     resolving conflicts among individuals and functional departments
4)     both coordinating the team's collaborative efforts and resolving conflicts among individuals and functional departments

Question 40 (5 points)
Common problems with technology include ________________
Question 40 options:
1)     sensory overload
2)     narrow bandwidth
3)     reduced opportunities for feedback
4)     all of the above choices are correct

 

Question 41 (8 points)

Provide an example in which technology has changed a person's job.

 

Question 42 (8 points)

How can a writer de-emphasize the negative in messages?

Question 43

What are some typical strategies for empowering employees?

 

Question 44

What are the four things a manager should do to become physically and psychologically prepared to listen? Discuss each of these.

Question 45

What are the most common benefits of enterprise social networks?

Question 46

According to the discussion presented in this chapter, what is the difference between interactive and active listening?

Question 47

What are two examples of internal noise and two examples of external noise that can damage a listener's competency at work?

Question 48

You are trying to indicate interest in the other person while listening. What should you be doing with your eyes, head, trunk, and hands?

Question49

What purposes does the transmittal document serve?

 

 

Question 50

What are four strategic advantages of written managerial communication?

BUSI502 Week 2 Quiz

QUIZ
Question 1 (2 points)
 Organizational, cultural, and control variables are considered the ________ used by decision makers to effect change in their organization.
1)     collaboration tools
2)     managerial levers
3)     events
4)     IS
5)     organization objectives

Question 2 (2 points)
The ____________ is a plan articulating where a business seeks to go and how it expects to get there.
1)     vision statement   
2)     mission statement
3)     stakeholder statement
4)     stockholder statement
5)     business strategy

Question 3 (2 points)
Which is not a question that can be used to understand organizational design?
1)     Who holds the decision rights to critical decisions?
2)     What are the characteristics, experiences, and skill levels of the people within the organization?
3)     Where is the organization's headquarters located?
4)     What are the key business processes?
5)     What is the culture of the organization?

Question 4 (2 points)
The "Managerial Levers" concept is useful for the following reasons:
1)     Management can find what "levers" to push to force people to do what they want.
2)     Management should not make a change unless they align multiple issues, such as tasks, measures, values, incentives, etc.
3)     System investments need to be financially highly leveraged.
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 5 (2 points)
A general manager should:
1)     Rely on IS personnel to make IS decisions
2)     Ignore how IS are used and managed
3)     Have a deep technical knowledge of IS
4)     Understand the use and consequences of technologies relevant to the business
5)     Not be expected to ask or understand technology related questions

Question 6 (2 points)
When an organization qualifies its product or service in a way that allows it to appear unique in the marketplace, this is called:
1)     Focus
2)     Differentiation
3)     Cost Leadership
4)     Business Strategy
5)     Mission

Question 7 (2 points)
Organizational, cultural, and control variables are considered the ____________ used by decision makers to effect change in their organization.
1) collaboration tools
2) managerial levers
3) events
4) IS
5) organization objectives

Question 8 (2 points)
Business strategies based on hypercompetition focus on customer satisfaction and profit maximization but also build in a component of business intelligence. Business intelligence helps an agile organization to:
1)     Predict and respond to new opportunities
2)     Use current information technologies less extensively
3)     Manage internal challenges
4)     React to supplier demands
5)     Collaborate

Question 9 (2 points)
GE recognized that it could only sustain its competitive advantage for a limited time as competitors attempted to outmaneuver them.  What was the model that Welch applied to help solve this problem?
1)     Destroy your organization
2)     Grow your organization
3)     Destroy your system
4)     Grow your system
5)     Destroy your business

Question 10 (2 points)
L.L. Bean is an online/catalog retail company that aggressively uses tools like instant messaging to communicate with customers regarding potential purchases and uses Facebook for branding activities. This use of technology supports which strategy?
1)     IS strategy
2)     Business strategy
3)     Organizational strategy
4)     Mission strategy
5)     Social business strategy

Question 11 (2 points)
The managerial levers identifies the crucial, interrelated components for designing an organization. The components include all of the following EXCEPT:
1)     Decision rights
2)     Social media
3)     Business processes
4)     Incentives and rewards
5)     Performance measurement and evaluation

Question 12 (2 points)
By using IS to achieve economies of scale and generate operating efficiencies, Walmart epitomizes which one of Porter's generic strategies?
1)     Differentiation
2)     Focus
3)     Cost leadership
4)     Broad focus
5)     Cost differentiation

Question 13 (2 points)
Through the use of various technologies, a ski resort tracks the slopes each customer skis and the times he or she skis them.  Skiers then have the ability to view this information online, and can choose to seamlessly share their accomplishments on Facebook. In addition, photographers positioned at the resort post pictures on Facebook for the skier. This ski resort has worked hard to develop a strong:
1)     IS Strategy
2)     Social business strategy
3)     Business strategy
4)     Organizational strategy
5)     Customer strategy

Question 14 (2 points)
Technology guru Tim O'Reilly said this about the publishing industry: "To adapt, publishers need to cannibalize their own business, experimenting with new forms, new formats, and new business models." This statement is consistent with:
1)     Generic framework
2)     Focus strategy
3)     Hypercompetition
4)     Direct strategy
5)     Porter's generic strategies

Question 15 (2 points)
While information systems can be used to gain a strategic advantage, they have inherent risks. Hershey Foods, for example, crippled its Halloween sales when its complex IS system failed to support its supply and inventory needs during peak production season. This is an example of which specific IS risk?
1)     Awaking a sleeping giant
2)     Implementing IS poorly
3)     Demonstrating bad timing
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages

Question 16 (2 points)
 Suppose Zara has a linked supply chain with Silk City, a fabric supplier. Zara and Silk City use IT to seamlessly exchange data, communicating requirements as well as delivery expectations. The relationship between Zara and Silk City is best described as:
1)     Strategic alliance
2)     Co-opetition
3)     Collaboration
4)     Dependence
5)     Competition

Question 17 (2 points)
Kodak was once the largest supplier of photographic film. In 2004 it was dropped from the Dow Jones Industrial Average after having been listed for 74 years. Kodak failed to use IT to fend off which one of the following of Porter's 5 competitive forces?
1)     Bargaining power of suppliers
2)     Threat of substitute products
3)     Potential threat of new entrants
4)     Bargaining power of buyers
5)     Industry collaboration

Question 18 (2 points)
Many companies like Zara use POS to capture information on what has sold, to whom and when. This use of technology to realize efficiencies supports which one of Porter's value chain activities?
1)     Outbound Logistics
2)     Marketing & Sales
3)     Operations
4)     Service
5)     Human resources

Question 19 (2 points)
Two automobile manufacturers are working together to develop hybrid technology. This type of relationship between the two automobile manufacturers is best described as:
1)     Co-opetition
2)     Strategic alliance
3)     Competition
4)     Collaboration
5)     Business strategy

Question 20 (2 points)
The Nike + iPod Sports Kit is a sensor in your shoe that syncs with your iPod and provides details about your workout. This inter-organizational relationship affords both Nike and Apple a business advantage.  This relationship between Nike and Apple is best described as:
1)     Strategic alliance
2)     Co-opetition
3)     Collaboration
4)     Dependence
5)     Competition

Question 21 (2 points)
A firm releases a new technology only to have a competitor implement a similar technology with more features and value to the consumer. This would be which type of risk?
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Implementing IS poorly

Question 22 (2 points)
Which of the following is NOT a primary activity of the Value Chain model?
1)     Inbound Logistics
2)     Operations
3)     Outbound Logistics
4)     Purchasing
5)     Marketing and Sales

Question 23 (2 points)
This risks of using information resources include all of the following except:
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Implementing IS poorly
4)     Missing cooperative opportunities
5)     Failing to deliver what users want

Question 24 (2 points)
Which one of the following is not considered to be a primary activity of the value chain of a firm?
1)     Inbound Logistics
2)     Service
3)     Sales & Marketing
4)     Technology
5)     Operations

Question 25 (2 points)

Which one of the following risks can threaten the IS of a company in a highly regulated industry such as financial services or health care?
1)     Demonstrating bad timing
2)     Awakening a sleeping giant
3)     Mobile-based alternative removes advantages
4)     Running afoul of the law
5)     Implementing IS poorly

Question 26 (2 points)
Zara strategically uses information technologies to do all of the following EXCEPT:
1)     Bring new products quickly to market, meeting customer demands
2)     Support a continuous flow of information from stores to manufacturers to distributors
3)     Maintain a rich, centralized repository of customer data
4)     Build silos of responsibilities with limited interaction between store managers, designers and market specialists
5)     Keep its inventory levels very low (relative to other retailers)

Question 27 (2 points)
Which model is best used to understand the ways in which information technologies allow a firm to both attain and sustain a competitive advantage?
1)     Porter's Competitive Forces
2)     Porter's Value Chain
3)     The Information Systems Strategy Triangle
4)     The Network Effect
5)     The Resource-Based View

Question 28 (2 points)
The supply chain:
1)     Points out the concept of weak link in an ordering process
2)     Helps us understand how value is built inside a single firm.
3)     Is composed of several value chains linked into a larger chain (a chain within a chain).
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 29 (2 points)
The organizational structure of Tata Consulting Services (TCS) is a  ___________ organizational structure.
1)     hierarchical
2)     networked
3)     matrix
4)     flat
5)     zero time

Question 30 (2 points)
This newer organizational design is designed to be highly flexible so that resources can be configured quickly to respond to changing demands.
1)     Up time organization
2)     Social networked organization
3)     Hierarchical organization
4)     Matrix organization
5)     Elastic enterprise

Question 31 (2 points)
 IS plays three important roles in management control processes.  These processes are data collection, evaluation, and _______________.
1)     transformation
2)     management
3)     communication
4)     implementation
5)     conversion

Question 32 (2 points)
In which type of organizational design do middle managers do the primary information processing and communication function, telling subordinates what to do and then reporting the outcome to senior management?
1)     Flat
2)     Networked
3)     Hierarchical
4)     Matrix
5)     Hybrid

Question 33 (2 points)
Cognizant's organizational structure was ________, but realized as its organization grew and its services became more complicated that a __________ structure for the organization was more appropriate.
1)     hierarchical, networked
2)     matrix, networked
3)     flat, matrix
4)     hierarchical, matrix
5)     flat, hierarchical

Question 34 (2 points)
Traditional organizations have one of four types of organizational design.  What are these four structure types?
1)     Traditional, flat, matrix, technology
2)     Hierarchical, flat, matrix, networked
3)     Matrix, networked, flat, information
4)     Matrix, flat, networked, traditional
5)     Social, networked, matrix, hierarchical

Question 35 (2 points)
Which of the following is not an organizational design variable?
1)     IT Infrastructure
2)     Decision rights
3)     Informal networks
4)     Structure
5)     Formal reporting relationships

Question 36 (2 points)
Effective, cross-cultural communication in today's global and "flattened" world is:
1)     Easy to achieve
2)     Difficult to achieve
3)     Of little consequence to the organizational strategy
4)     Achieved by using the best available technologies
5)     No longer an issue for managers

Question 37 (2 points)
All of the following help to develop informal networks that play an important role in an organization EXCEPT for:
1)     Job rotation
2)     Company softball team
3)     Virtual communities
4)     Performance reviews
5)     Attendance at a conference

Question 38 (2 points)
Organizational design is all about making sure that _________ are properly allocated, reflecting the structure of formal reporting relationships.
1)     decision rights
2)     business processes
3)     values
4)     incentives
5)     IS

Question 39 (2 points)
A matrix organization:
1)     Can involve multiple bosses and multiple teams
2)     Requires quite a bit of communication to be successful
3)     Were rare for quite a while but have become more common in recent years
4)     All of the above
5)     None of the above

Question 40 (2 points)
At Zara, decision rights for ordering have been granted to whom?
1)     Regional managers
2)     Headquarters
3)     Store managers
4)     Central production
5)     The commercial team

Question 41 (ESSAY)
Consider the brief description of the elastic enterprise. What is an example of a control system that would be critical to manage for success in the elastic enterprise? Why?

BM350 Marketing Management Part II

Question 1
The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________.
A) measuring consumer brand loyalty
B) identifying and establishing brand positioning
C) planning and implementing brand marketing
D) measuring and interpreting brand performance

Question 2
The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors."
A) copyright
B) trademark
C) slogan
D) brand

Question 3
________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match.
A) Brand positioning
B) Market research
C) Competitive advantage
D) Competitor analysis

Question 4
The ________ attack offers the firm an opportunity to diversify into unrelated products, into new geographical markets, and leapfrogging into new technologies.
A) bypass
B) flank
C) frontal
D) guerrilla

Question 5
Sony is an unusual market leader. It gives its customers new products that they have never asked for (e.g., Walkmans, VCRs, video cameras, CDs). This makes Sony a(n) ________ firm.
A) market-driven
B) market-driving
C) operations-driven
D) vision-driven

Question 6
________ is a period of rapid market acceptance and substantial profit improvement.
A) Stagnancy
B) Introduction
C) Maturity
D) Growth

Question 7
Which of the following is true about market-nichers?
A) They are market followers in small markets.
B) They tend to have high manufacturing costs.
C) Their return on investment exceeds that in larger markets.
D) A nicher achieves high volume as against a mass marketer that achieves high margin.

Question 8
A(n) ________ is another name for identifying shifts in market segments that are causing gaps to develop, then rushing in to fill the gaps and developing them into strong segments.
A) frontal attack strategy
B) flanking strategy
C) encircling strategy
D) counteroffensive strategy

Question 9
An alternative to being a market follower in a large market is to be a leader in a small market. This type of competitor is called a ________.
A) marketing king
B) marketnicher
C) segment king
D) guerilla marketer

Question 10
________ is the ability of a company to prepare on a large-scale basis individually designed products, services, programs, and communications.
A) Mass customization
B) Reverse engineering
C) Interoperability
D) Backward compatibility

Question 11
A ________ is the set of all products and items a particular seller offers for sale.
A) product line
B) product mix
C) product extension
D) product system

Question 12
BRZ Shoes targets the youth market with vibrant, visually appealing ads in modern styles. BRZ ads appeal to the ________ dimension of brand experience.
A) sensory
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) intellectual

Question 13
The ________ determinant of service quality refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to convey trust and confidence in the service they provide.
A) conscientious
B) assurance
C) empathy
D) reliability

Question 14
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of characteristics: ________, tangibility, and use.
a.availability
b.affordability
c.aesthetics
d. durability

Question 15
What types of goods are purchased frequently, immediately, and with minimum effort by the consumers?
A) specialty goods
B) shopping goods
C) convenience goods
D) durable goods

Question 16
Costs that do not vary with production levels or sales are known as:
a. overhead costs
b. variable costs
c. average costs
d. opportunity costs

Question 17
After determining its pricing objectives, a firm should take what next logical step in setting its pricing policy?
It should analyze its competitors' costs, prices, and offers.
It should select its pricing method.
It should select its final price.
It should determine the demand for its product.

Question 18
A company that is looking to maximize its market share would do well to follow ________ pricing.
A) markup
B) market-penetration
C) market-skimming
D) target-return

Question 19
Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?
A) selecting a pricing method
B) selecting the pricing objective
C) determining demand
D) estimating cost

Question 20
A firm that is plagued with overcapacity, intense competition, or changing wants would do better if it pursues ________ as its major objective.
A) market skimming
B) product-quality leadership
C) survival
D) profit maximization

Question 21
Which of the following is a form of mass communications channel?
A) interactive marketing
B) personal selling
C) public relations
D) word-of-mouth marketing

Question 22
_____ questions ask about the consequences of the buyer's problems.
a. Situation
b. Problem
c. Implication
d. Need-payoff

Question 23
________ is the time necessary to prepare a promotional program prior to launching it.
A) Sell-in time
B) Link time
C) Setup time
D) Lead time

Question 24
________ is a measure of communications effectiveness that describes the percentage of target market exposed to a communication.
A) Frequency
B) Reach
C) Width
D) Depth

Question 25
Which of the following marketing communications tools is most influential at the maturity stage of a product's life cycle?
A) sales promotions
B) direct marketing
C) advertising
D) publicity