MKTG201 Week 1 Assignment 1 Score 99 PERCENT

Compare and contrast a four Ps approach to marketing versus the value approach (creating, communicating, and delivering value). Select and examine these approaches for at least one routine and non-routine problem.  What would you expect to be the same and what would you expect to be different between two companies that apply one or the other approach? 

MKT571 Final Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
Nowadays, a __________ is being appointed by many firms so as to place the marketing function on a more equal footing with the functions performed by other C-level executives.
Select the correct answer

marketing manager

chief information officer

finance manager

chief marketing officer

Question 2
In the context of the value chain, __________ is a primary activity that involves bringing materials into the business.
Select the correct answer

operations

technology development

marketing

inbound logistics

Question 3
Which of the following is a difference between business markets and consumer markets?
Select the correct answer

    Suppliers in business markets are often expected to customize their products to suit the requirements of individual business customers, whereas suppliers in consumer markets are seldom expected to do so.

    Purchasing decisions in business markets are made by the end user, whereas purchasing decisions in consumer markets are made by a buying committee.

    In business markets, the total demand for goods and services is significantly affected by price changes, whereas in consumer markets, the total demand for goods and services is not significantly affected by price changes.

    In business markets, buyers usually purchase products through intermediaries, whereas in consumer markets, buyers usually purchase products directly from manufacturers.

Question 4
__________ divides the market into units such as nations, states, regions, cities, or neighborhoods.
Select the correct answer

Geographic segmentation

    Demographic segmentation

    Psychographic segmentation

    Behavioral segmentation

Question 5
______ refers to a marketing strategy in which a firm tries to cater to all customer groups with all the products they might require.
Select the correct answer

    Full market coverage

    Multiple segment specialization

    Single-segment concentration

    Individual marketing

Question 6
__________ refers to the activity of designing a company's product and image so that they occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market.
Select the correct answer

    Targeting

    Segmentation

    Positioning

    Customization

Question 7
A company that interacts with its customers to get product ideas should:
Select the correct answer

engage the right customers in the right way.

prohibit customers from innovating products without its consent.

focus solely on its lead users.

allow all its customers to participate in the product-design process.

Question 8
In which of the following stages of a product life cycle are profits nonexistent?
Select the correct answer

    Decline

    Maturity

    Growth

 Introduction

Question 9
A fundamental and distinctive mode of expression that appears in a field of human endeavor is called a ________________.
Select the correct answer

theme

pattern

style

trend

Question 10
Which of the following best describes the term product system?
Select the correct answer

    It refers to a set of different but related items that operate in a compatible manner.

    It is a group of products that perform a similar function and belong to a single product class.

    It refers to a set of products available only to high-income consumers.

    It is a set of variants that are developed for a single product.

Question 11
Which of the following statements is true of a sharing economy?
Select the correct answer

    A sharing economy is primarily the result of two activities, harvesting and divesting.

    An organization's trust and reputation have little role in determining its place in a sharing economy.

    Self-policing mechanisms are typically absent in most platforms that form part of a sharing-related business.

    In a sharing economy, an individual experiences the benefits of being both a consumer and a producer.

Question 12
__________ is the first step a firm should take while setting the price for a product.
Select the correct answer

    Determining demand

    Selecting a price method

    Estimating cost

    Selecting the price objective

Question 13
Entities that assist in the distribution process of a product but neither take title to goods nor engage in the negotiation of purchases or sales are called ________.
Select the correct answer

agents

facilitators

merchants

jobbers

Question 14
Which of the following statements is true of personal communications channels?
Select the correct answer

Their effectiveness derives from individualized presentation and feedback.

    They include public relations, advertising, and sales promotions.

    They are often less effective than mass communication channels.

    Their influence on purchase decisions is significant when products are purchased frequently.

Question 15
__________ seeks to create brand awareness among consumers and communicate to them about new products or new features of existing products.
Select the correct answer

Informative advertising

    Persuasive advertising

    Reminder advertising

    Reinforcement advertising

Question 16
When marketers combine an existing brand with a new brand, the product is called a ________.
Select the correct answer

family brand

master brand

sub-brand

parent brand

Question 17
____________ is the process of maximizing customer loyalty by cautiously handling detailed information about customers and all customer touch points.
Select the correct answer

    Customer relationship management

    Product modification

    Enterprise resource planning

    Customer cloning

Question 18
The marketing department of StyleWheel Inc., a manufacturer of luxury cars, initiates intensive marketing efforts prior to the launch of a new model. Three months into the launch of the new model, the department decides to assess the short-term effects of its marketing activities. Which of the following is a reliable measure of performance for this purpose?
Select the correct answer

    Shareholder value

Customer awareness

    Market share

    Perceived quality

Question 19
Which of the following measures reflects the short-term results of a firm's marketing efforts?
Select the correct answer

    Perceived quality

    Market share

    Customer awareness

    Sales turnover

Question 20
__________ refers to the capacity to satisfy humanity's needs without harming future generations.
Select the correct answer

    Durability

    Accountability

 Sustainability

    Profitability

Question 21
The __________ encompasses the actors engaged in producing, distributing, and promoting a product or a service.
Select the correct answer

task environment

demographic environment

natural environment

legal environment

Question 22
The __________ refers to the core business process in which an organization researches, develops, and introduces novel, high-quality products quickly and within the firm's budget.
Select the correct answer

customer relationship management process

customer acquisition process

new-offering realization process

fulfillment management process

Question 23
Business markets differ from consumer markets in that:
Select the correct answers

    in business markets, a marketer typically deals with several smaller buyers.

    the total demand for many goods and services in business markets is elastic.

    in business markets, purchasing is often executed through intermediaries.

    buying decisions in business markets are subject to multiple influences.

Question 24
Fashion Vista Designers, a firm that sells designer clothes, has outlets in four countries. In each country, it offers clothes that suit the climatic conditions of the country and match the cultural sensibilities of the local population. The marketing department of Fashion Vista often releases advertisements that show regional celebrities endorsing the company's products. In this scenario, which of the following types of market segmentation does Fashion Vista employ?
Select the correct answer

Geographic segmentation

    Demographic segmentation

    Psychographic segmentation

    Behavioral segmentation

Question 25
A firm should use undifferentiated marketing to promote its products when:
Select the correct answer

it wants to appeal to multiple market segments.

it wants to customize its products for each consumer.

the market shows several natural segments.

all consumers have roughly the same wants and preferences.

Question 26
A customer-focused __________ presents a strong, convincing reason why the target market should purchase a product or service.
Select the correct answer

value network

project objective

value proposition

mission statement

Question 27
__________ is one of the methods used to develop ideas for a new product in which each feature of an existing product is noted and modified.
Select the correct answer

    Attribute listing

    Morphological analysis

    Mind mapping

Reverse-assumption analysis

Question 28
__________ is a period in a typical product life cycle characterized by rapid market acceptance and significant profit improvement.
Select the correct answer

    Introduction

    Growth

    Decline

    Maturity

Question 29
Which of the following statements is true of fads?
Select the correct answer

    They have a long acceptance cycle.

    They tend to win over only a limited following.

    They usually satisfy a strong customer need.

    They last for several generations.

Question 30
The width of a company's product mix refers to:
Select the correct answer

    the total number of items in the product mix.

    the number of variants offered for each product in a product line.

    the number of different product lines carried by the company.

the extent to which the different product lines in the mix are related in terms of end use.

T05K Assignment 4

Assignment 04

T05 Criminal Behavior

Directions:  Be sure to make an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English spelling and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4)pages in length; refer to the "Assignment Format" page for specific format requirements.

 

Discuss the major principles of the biosocial theories of criminal causation. Then explain the Human Genome Project (HGP). Finally, discuss criticisms that have been waged against the biosocial theories of criminal causation.

 

BUSI504 Week 8 Final Exam Score 96 PERCENT

Question 1 (2 points)
 In a high context culture, people look for meaning in what is not said.
Question 1 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 2 (2 points)

Negotiation is an integral skill for managers.
Question 2 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 3 (2 points)

Meetings are an effective way to make announcements and disseminate information.
Question 3 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 4 (2 points)

Behavioral questions are the least useful type to ask during employment interviews.
Question 4 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 5 (2 points)

Among the persuasion variables that are associated with the speaker, the most significant variable is the speaker's credibility.
Question 5 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 6 (2 points)

The visual elements in a document may contradict the text and cause confusion.
Question 6 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 7 (2 points)

The best way to ensure clarity in a presentation is to write a detailed outline.
Question 7 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 8 (2 points)

Normal gift-giving practices in some countries are considered unethical in others.
Question 8 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 9 (2 points)

The maximum supportable outcome (MSO) and the least acceptable outcome (LAO) are guideposts for negotiations that should be considered flexible.
Question 9 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 10 (2 points)

Conflict develops due to perceived mutually exclusive goals.
Question 10 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 11 (2 points)

Audiences are more likely to remember a speaker's delivery style than the content of the presentation.
Question 11 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 12 (2 points)

The essential aim of informational meetings is to communicate a company point of view and have it accepted by employees.
Question 12 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 13 (2 points)

Decisions decrease in quality when conflicts are involved.
Question 13 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 14 (2 points)

Directed questions are effective as persuasion tools.
Question 14 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 15 (2 points)

In the United States, the accepted practice in negotiations is to begin with a general conversation on neutral topics.
Question 15 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 16 (2 points)


Negative space suggests sloppy or lazy design, and should be filled with text or graphics.
Question 16 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 17 (2 points)

Unlike in other types of meetings, members of staff meetings are not expected to share information.
Question 17 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 18 (2 points)

Managers generally focus on facts rather than opinions during an interview in order to make decisions regarding interviewees.
Question 18 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 19 (2 points)

It's been estimated that 20 percent of American managers fail to perform adequately abroad because they haven't been sufficiently prepared for adjusting to the foreign culture.
Question 19 options:
    1) True
    2) False
Question 20 (2 points)

Unclear business goals, time pressure, and uncomfortable work environments are all factors correlated with workplace conflict.
Question 20 options:
    1) True
    2) False

Question 21 (5 points)
 Perceived conflict is present when the parties
Question 21 options:
1) recognize the conditions
2) misunderstand one another's true position
3) have the same interests
4) both 1 and 2 are correct
Question 22 (5 points)
 "Tell me about yourself" is what type of question?
Question 22 options:
1) behavioral
2) leading
3) open
4) directed
Question 23 (5 points)
 ________________ are titles and subtitles within the body of a document that divide material into comprehensible segments by highlighting the main topics and signaling topic changes.
Question 23 options:
1) Headings
2)     Headers
3)     Captions
4)     Legends

Question 24 (5 points)
"Culture" includes
Question 24 options:
1)     religious systems
2)     educational systems
3)     political systems
4)     all choices are correct

Question 25 (5 points)
The interview format that is suitable for most situations that managers face is the _________
interview.
Question 25 options:
   
1)     structured
2)     semi-structured
3)     mini-structured
4)     unstructured

Question 26 (5 points)

Which of the following is a communication principle that should be used in applying a win-win conflict resolution strategy?
Question 26 options:
1)     use emotional rather than neutral terms
2)     make absolute statements
3)     ask closed-ended questions
4)     repeat key phrases for understanding

Question 27 (5 points)
Which conflict-resolution strategy is closest to negotiation?
Question 27 options:
   
1)     forcing
2)     avoiding
3)     problem-solving
4)     compromising

Question 28 (5 points)
Which of the following uses a questionnaire that elicits the participants' opinions on a topic?
Question 28 options:
1)     nominal group technique
2)     Delphi technique
3)     group decision support system
4)     brainstorming

Question 29 (5 points)

When emphasizing an important or primary point, the speaker should ________________
Question 29 options:
   
1)     slow down
2)     speed up
3)     pace back and forth
4)     nod repeatedly

Question 30 (5 points)

Which is not an advantage of working in a team?
Question 30 options:
1)     A group decision may be of a higher quality than that made by an individual
2)     It provides a welcome break from routine independent tasks
3)     Group members are more likely to be committed to the information presented
4)     It may reduce the chance of communication problems

Question 31 (5 points)
 According to Dr. Anne Grinols, ethical persuasion requires analyzing the audience's ______ ____________
Question 31 options:
1)     relationships and knowledge
2)     attitudes and beliefs
3)     age and education level
4)     driving forces and restraining forces

Question 32 (5 points)
Which layer of the strategic communication model is relevant to negotiation?
Question 32 options:
1)     the first layer
2)     the second layer
3)     the third layer
4)     all of the above choices are correct

Question 33 (5 points)
Asking a meeting member to play "devil's advocate" is a strategy for ________________
Question 33 options:
1)     keeping the meeting short
2)     avoiding groupthink
3)     encouraging harmony
4)     strengthening leadership

Question 34 (5 points)
Although likely to cause later conflicts, which conflict-resolution strategy is the most commonly used by managers?
Question 34 options:
1) forcing
2) avoidance
3) accommodating
4) compromise

Question 35 (5 points)

The idea that under the skin, all human beings are alike, brothers and sisters in the common family of man is known as the:
Question 35 options:
1)     universality myth
2)     global village concept
3)     commonality village
4)     objectivity myth

Question 36 (5 points)

The most pervasive communication barrier in workplace interviews is
Question 36 options:
   
1)     perception
2)     bias
3)     fact-inference confusion
4)     organizational status

Question 37 (5 points)

Which of the following roles do visual elements play in a document?
Question 37 options:
1)     set a tone
2)     provide additional information
3)     reinforce the text
4)     all of the above

Question 38 (5 points)

When negotiating, which factors must be kept in balance?
Question 38 options:
1)     the relationship, the goal, and the organization
2)     the past, the present, and the future
3)     the methods, the tactics, and the strategy
4)     all of the above choices are correct
Question 39 (5 points)

Which of the following is the best sequence of topics for an informative presentation about a change in procedures?
Question 39 options:
1)     comparison and contrast
2)     spatial
3)     chronological
4)     economic

Question 40 (5 points)
 Why should managers become culturally sensitive?
Question 40 options:
1) the workforce is increasingly more culturally diverse
2) they are working in a global economy
3) US business values are universal
4) both 1 and 2 are correct

 

Question 41 (8 points)

 

What is NGT? What is its value for group decision-making?

Question 42

What are the "building blocks" of document design for managerial communication and what purpose do they serve in your document?

Question 43

Define MSO (maximum supportable outcome) and LAO (least acceptable outcome) in a negotiation. Give an example of each in the context of negotiating the price of a new vehicle with an auto dealer.

Question 44

Provide a brief example of either generational or gender-based differences in communication styles.

Question 45

What should a manager do to prepare for an assignment in another country?

Question 46

Collective bargaining between an employer and a union representing employees is also known as what type of negotiation?

Question 47

Describe one way conflict can benefit an organization.

Audience analysis is a key activity during presentation preparation. What are some elements?

Question 49

What is meant by BFOQ?  What is its relevance to employment interviews, performance appraisals, and disciplinary interviews?

Question 50

List and describe the six competencies of Emotional Intelligence identified by Daniel Goleman.

BUSI504 Week 3 Dropbox Assignment 1

Read Case 2-4, "Resigning From the TV Station," on pp. 50-51 of the text. After you have read the case, prepare an essay answering Questions 1-4 at the end of the case. Your answers to the questions should be original, thoughtful, and well-reasoned, demonstrating your insight regarding the case and the questions presented. Your essay should be between 4-6 pages in length, double-spaced, using a 12-point Times New Roman or similar business font. You should answer the questions in the order presented. Style, and any use of citations, should follow the 6th edition of the APA Manual.

 

Resigning From the TV Station

 Jane Rye is a student of advertising at the local state university and will graduate at the end of the next term. She has a part-time job in the sales department at a local television station. When hired, Rye thought she was very lucky to have a job there, not only for the money but also for the work experience. Pat Trent, the sales manager who hired her, was Rye's immediate supervisor. Rye was doing a very good job and received considerable support from Trent. In fact, the sales manager had nothing but praise for Rye's work when reporting to top management. Trent often told her direct report that her work was exceptional and Trent would like to hire her on a permanent basis after graduation to head a new media research department for the station. The job seemed to promise a challenging and rewarding career. While Rye was flattered by the offer, she was not interested in the position because she found her present job unsatisfying. However, she never told Trent her feelings about the job or the possible appointment. Because Trent had trained Rye and had promoted her to everyone, Rye had become very loyal and grateful to her sales manager. Thus, Rye thought she would betray Trent if she were to refuse the job. After six weeks, however, Rye decided to quit and work part-time at the university, but she did not know how to approach her boss. Rye, feeling unable to say anything unpleasant to Trent, let time pass until the day she was ready to quit to start her new job. When Rye got to work that day, the sales manager was scheduled to leave town later that morning. Rye was forced to go into Trent's office while two other people were there discussing another matter. Trent asked Rye what she wanted, and Rye replied, "I am resigning." The sales manager was taken completely by surprise, asked Rye why she was resigning, and wondered what was to be done with the project Rye was handling. Rye apologized for such short notice. Rye explained that she was taking a part-time job at the school starting tomorrow. Trent, very disappointed in her direct report, said, "If you had told me sooner, I could have transferred the project to someone else—now I'm in a bind."

 

Questions

How should Rye have handled her resignation?

Where, when, and how do you think Rye should have resigned? Do you think Trent would have understood under different circumstances?

How did Trent foster Rye's reluctance to communicate?

What are some possible long-term repercussions of the way Rye handled her resignation?

 

 

BUSI531 Week 2 Quiz SCORE 100 PERCENT

Quiz
Question 1 (2 points)
 In the needs assessment process, organizational analysis deals with identifying:
Question 1 options:
1)     The training resources that are available.
2)     Employees' personal characteristics.
3)     The conditions under which tasks are performed.
4)     The employees who require training.

Question 2 (2 points)
Employees' readiness for training includes identifying whether:
Question 2 options:
1)     An organization's work environment will facilitate learning and not interfere with performance.
2)     An organization should develop training programs by itself or if it should buy them from a vendor or a consulting firm.
3)     Peers' and managers' attitudes and behaviors toward the employees are supportive.
4)     Managers are using a similar frame of reference when they evaluate associates using same competencies.

Question 3 (2 points)
____ refers to the process of a company using information about other companies' training practices.
Question 3 options:
1)     Brainstorming
2)     Crowdsourcing
3)     Outsourcing
4)     Benchmarking

Question 4 (2 points)
_____ refers to asking a large group of employees to help provide information for needs assessment that they are not traditionally asked to do.
Question 4 options:
1)     Crowdsourcing
2)     Historical data review
3)     Focus group
4)     Benchmarking

Question 5 (2 points)
_____ are useful with complex or controversial issues that one person may be unable or unwilling to explore.
Question 5 options:
1)     Questionnaires
2)     Observations
3)     Focus groups
4)     Historical data reviews

Question 6 (2 points)
Which of the following method of needs assessment is inexpensive and allows the collection of data from a large number of persons?
Question 6 options:
1)     Questionnaire
2)     Observation
3)     Focus group
4)     Interview

Question 7 (2 points)
_____ are more concerned with how training may affect the attainment of financial goals for the particular units they supervise.
Question 7 options:
1)     Operational workers
2)     Instructional designers
3)     Mid-level managers
4)    Upper-level managers

Question 8 (2 points)
_____ analysis involves determining the appropriateness of training, given the company's business strategy, its resources available for training, and support by managers and peers for training activities.
Question 8 options:
1)    Organizational
2)     Task
3)    Gap
4)     Value-chain

Question 9 (2 points)
_____ involves determining whether performance deficiencies result from lack of knowledge or skills.
Question 9 options:
1)    Organizational analysis
2)     Person analysis
3)     Gap analysis
4)     Task analysis

Question 10 (2 points)
Which of the following statements is true of needs assessment?
Question 10 options:
1)     The needs assessment process fails to provide information regarding the outcomes that should be collected to evaluate training effectiveness.
2)     Upper- and mid-level managers are excluded from getting involved in the needs assessment process.
3)    The role of the needs assessment process is to determine if training is the appropriate solution.
4)    A company's decision regarding outsourcing its training is independent of the needs assessment outcome.

Question 11 (2 points)
Which of the following is true of roles of managers?
Question 11 options:
1)    Line managers spend less time managing individual performance and developing employees than mid level managers or executives do.
   
2)    Midlevel managers or executives are not involved in planning and allocating resources, coordinating interdependent groups, and managing change.
   
3)    The roles that managers have in a company do not influence the focus of training development, and learning activity.
    4) Regardless of their level in a company, all managers are expected to serve as spokespersons to other work units, managers, and vendors.

Question 12 (2 points)
The _____ analysis helps identify employees who need training.
Question 12 options:
1)     SWOT analysis
2)     Value chain analysis
3)     BCG matrix
4)     Person Analysis

Question 13 (2 points)
_____ refers to the difficulty level of written materials.
Question 13 options:
1)     Literacy
2)    Cognitive Challenge
3)     Phoenetics
4)    Readability

Question 14 (2 points)
____ is the ability to establish the necessary platform requirements to efficiently and completely coordinate data transfer.
Question 14 options:
1)     Systems Architecture
2)     Documentation Relay
3)     Proficiencies
4)     Data Migration

Question 15 (2 points)
_____ refer to accepted standards of behaviors for work-group members.
Question 15 options:
1)    Expectations
2)     Policy
3)    Norms
4)     Standards of Excellence

Question 16 (2 points)
Who should participate in needs assessment?
Question 16 options:

Question 17 (2 points)
How do age and generation impact training?
Question 17 options:

Question 18 (2 points)
What is the value of "Rapid Needs Assessment" to an organization?
Question 18 options:

Question 19 (2 points)
Explain "Situational Constraints".
Question 19 options:

Question 20 (2 points)
What is a competency model?
Question 20 options:

BUSI531 Week 2 Dropbox Assignment 1

Instructions
Write a paper on the topic described under "Application Assignments" located on page 152, and develop a competency model on the same. Expectations Your paper must be approximately 3-5 pages in length. You must use APA or MLA style of writing. Dropbox Assignment 1 is due on Sunday by 11:59 p.m. CT, of Week 2.

 

Develop a competency model for a job held by a friend, spouse, or roommate (someone other than yourself). Use the process discussed in this chapter to develop your model. Note the most difficult part of developing the model. How could the model be used?