BM410B Sales Management and Practices Part I

Question 1
Which of the following is an example of using social capital to help grow a company?
A) The HR manager of a company hires new employees to staff a project that will increase revenue by 25%.
B) The CFO of a company increases the budget of the research and development department so they can create a product that will triple profits in 18 months.
C) The CEO of a company asks a friend in the automotive industry to cut a company-wide discount on corporately-leased vehicles that saves the company $500,000 a year.
D) The Sales Director of a company institutes a policy requiring all new salespeople to train with a senior salesperson for six months before going out into the field alone.

Question 2
Technology can be used by sales managers and sales executives to:
A) keep track of how salespeople are performing
B) align the sales department with the company's mission statement
C) motivate individual salespeople to make more sales calls
D) perform need identification as part of the sales process

Question 3
Another word for "channel" in the phrase "sales channel" is:
A. Order
B. Staff
C. method
D. website

Question 4
A leader who spends most of her time communicating with the public about the company and interacting with her employees to ensure that they have what they need to do their jobs, but who does not engage in planning of activities or employee goals is engaging in which of the Situational Leader styles of leadership?

A. Directing
B. Coaching
C. Implementing
D. Supporting

Question 5
What is a boundary spanner in terms of sales ?
 A. An idea that replaces one discipline with another discipline
B. An idea that crosses two disciplines
C. A person who works with two different organizations
D. A person who works for one company but contracts with another company

Question 6
of the common ethical issues salespeople have with their customers, which one is legal?
A. Kickbacks
B. misrepresentation
C. bribery
D. puffery

Question 7
Use of an electronic data interchange (EDI) system is most appropriate for which type of buying situation?
A. a new buy
b. a modified re-buy
c. a straight re-buy
d. facilitative

Question 8
CRM software differs from SFA software in that CRM software:
A. is hosted on the company's servers so it can only be accessed from on-site
B. has room for more customer contact records
C. contains contact records as well as product specifications
D. connects to multiple systems so everything is integrated across all sales channels

Question 9
According to economic theory, sales managers should hire as many salespeople as possible as long as what?

A. until the market is saturated
B. until the salespeople feel too much competition in the workplace as become dissatisfied
C. as long as each salesperson can sell more than they cost the company
D. as long as the salespeople are willing to work for the wages offered

Question 10
A functional sales structure takes the sales process and

A. makes it easier by cutting out several steps
B. codifies the process in CRM software
C. unifies it by asking salespeople to implement the products they sell to customers
D. separates it into several steps, each preformed by a specialist

Question 11
The annual percentage of employees that leave a company, for whatever reason, is called the:

A. attrition rate
B. turnover rate
C. variable rate
D. controllable rate
Question 12
A training assessment determines:

A. how well the training was conducted
B. how well the attendees retained what they learned in the training
C. how things could be improved for the next time
D. what topics need to be covered in a training program

Question 13
Bloom's cognitive/knowledge categories teach skills that all have to do with dealing with and processing:

A. information.
B. analysis.
C. intelligence.
D. emotions.

Question 14
What does "learning transfer" mean?
A. Learning transfer is another phrase for learning objective.
B. Learning transfer means that what is learned in a training program is retained and then applied in the field.
C. Learning transfer means that the trainer is able to effectively transfer what is in his or head into the minds of the salespeople in the training.
D. A learning transfer is a center staffed with trainers and all the equipment needed to run a company's software and train salespeople on it.

Question 15
One great challenge for managers of sales team is"
A. dealing with more than one salesperson at a time
B. transitioning from a sales role to a managerial role
C. determining how to compensate the different members of the team equitably
D. finding time to sell to the manager's own accounts

Question 16
Output-based goals consist of:

A. the number of products a company manufactures.   

B. the selling results a salesperson is expected to achieve.   

C. the sales forecasts for each specific account.   

D. the activities a salesperson performs to contact customers.   

Question 17
Herzberg's Two-Factor Approach theorizes that two types of rewards need to be present for a salesperson to be motivated. These two types are:
A. concept and process.   
B. formal and informal.   
C. motivation and hygiene.   
D. emotional and logistical.   

Question 18
Managers who understand McClelland's Needs Approach will give their salespeople rewards that combine which of the following aspects?

A. Aachievement, recognition, and money   
B. Aachievement, affiliation, and power   
C. Mmoney, recognition, and power   
D. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes   

Question 19
Workers from the Mature generation are motivated by:
 A. flexible time.   
B. collaborative work experiences.   
C. informal communication.   
D. respect, experience, and formality.   

Question 20
A variable that predicts what will happen with the sales of another product is referred to as that product's:

A. dependent.   
B. predecessor.   
C. leading indicator.   
D. moving average.   

Question 21
The second step in the CDI process, which makes the data useful to others, involves:
A. gathering the data initially.   
B. analyzing the data with software.   
C. creating forecasts.   
D. cleaning and formatting data to company naming and categorizing standards.   

Question 22
The industry-wide sales expected for a certain product for a certain time period is are called:
A. total revenue.   
B. market potential.   
C. market push.   
D. net receipts.   

Question 23
A pipeline analysis shows:
a. how many products are currently being manufactured
b. where customers are at different stages of the sales process
c. how many cold calls a salesperson made in the previous period
d. what the salesperson's total revenue was for the previous period

Question 24
The four-factor model is a simple and elegant way to get a snapshot of
a. how the relationship between input measures and output measures works
b. the total activity of the sales force
c. two important input activities and how they interact with two important output activities
d. four measures with no correlation to each other

Question 25
A low context culture is one in which
A. there are many unspoken messages
B. Speakers frame their words with conventions such as "if God grants it"
C. non-verbal communication is more frequent than verbal communication
D. words mean what they mean

LAW531 Final Exam (2018) SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
Which of the following applies to trade restraints that are inherently anticompetitive?
The rule of reason
The pro rata rule
The per se rule
The rule of four

Question 2
When one party acquires a license to use another party's business model and intellectual property in the distribution of goods and services, the arrangement is a __________.

    limited liability partnership
    franchise
    joint venture
    Kickback

Question 3
Which of the following is prohibited by the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) with regard to food?

    The sale of adulterated food
    Labeling of genetically engineered food products
    The sale of non-organic food products
    Labeling of raw seafood products

Question 4
The obligation owed by individuals to one another not to cause any unreasonable harm or any risk of harm is called:

    duty of restoration.
    duty of care
    duty of loyalty.
    duty of restitution.

Question 5
When can an arbitrator's decision and award be appealed to the courts?

    While drafting a submission agreement
    When an arbitration is binding
    While entering a negotiation
    When an arbitration is nonbinding

Question 6
Which of the following is an advantage of franchising?

    It enables two businesses to pool their resources to pursue a common goal.
    It allows a business to consist of only general partners.
    It allows businesses to reach profitable new markets.
    It grants free access to the intellectual property of a business to anyone in the same market.

Question 7
Workers' compensation is defined as the:

    system that provides retirement and death benefits to covered employees and their dependents.
    insurance obtained by employees from private insurance companies and government-sponsored programs.
    remuneration awarded to employees and their families when the employees are injured on the job.
    set of programs mandated by the government to ensure safety in places of work.

Question 8
Corporate officers are elected by a corporation's __________.

    owners
    board of directors
    common stockholders
    preferred stockholders

Question 9
Which of the following is a difference between embezzlement and larceny?

    Embezzlement is the snatching of personal property from a person's home, whereas larceny is the snatching of personal property from a person on the street.
    Embezzlement is an unintentional tort, whereas larceny is a nonintent crime.
    Embezzlement is the stealing of property by a person to whom the property was entrusted, whereas larceny is the stealing of property by a person not entrusted with it.
    Embezzlement is usually punishable by the payment of monetary damages, whereas larceny is usually punishable by the death penalty.

Question 10
Which of the following is a criticism of the ethical fundamentalism theory?

    It does not allow people to decide for themselves what is right and what is wrong.
    It is impossible in the real world to expect that everyone in society will obey moral rules.
    It does not reach an agreement on what the universal rules should be.
    It is impossible to measure the "good" that may result from different actions.

Question 11
The manifestation of the substance of a contract by two or more individuals is called __________.

    consideration
    an offer
    acceptance
    an agreement

Question 12
Which of the following is a remedy that requires the breaching party to perform the acts promised in a contract?

    Specific performance
    Binding arbitration
    Punitive damages
    Special damages

Question 13
Laws that prohibit discrimination based on race, gender, or religion in the workplace primarily serve the function of:

    advocating social justice.
    providing a basis for compromise.
    creating a new status quo.
    minimizing the freedom of employees.

Question 14
Which of the following is a difference between arbitration and mediation?

    Arbitration is an informal method of dispute resolution, whereas mediation is a formal method of dispute resolution.
    The decision of an arbitrator is nonbinding, whereas the decision of a mediator is binding.
    The role of an arbitrator is merely to assist parties in reaching a settlement, whereas the role of a mediator is similar to the role of a trial judge.
    An arbitrator is authorized to issue an award, whereas a mediator can only assist in reaching a settlement.

Question 15
Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for an invention?

    The invention needs to be made of highly valuable components.
    The invention must be in the form of a service.
    The invention must be original.
    The invention needs to be recognizable to the general public.

Question 16
An agency that appears to be created by a principal but does not exist in reality is called a(n) __________.

    apparent agency
    implied agency
    agency by ratification
    fully disclosed agency

Question 17
Laws that protect governments from being overthrown primarily serve the function of:

    advocating social justice
    providing bases for compromise.
    maintaining the status quo.
    minimizing individual freedom.

Question 18
Ken owns a small convenience store in a street corner in California. One afternoon, a teenage boy enters his store, looks around, and prepares to walk out without buying anything. Ken is wary of the boy because of the boy's shabby clothing. He stops and asks the boy to empty his pockets and then questions him for about five minutes. After finding that the boy does not have anything from the store on him, Ken reluctantly lets him go. Which of the following is a merchant protection statute that Ken has violated?

    Reasonable grounds for suspicion
    Reasonable duration of detention
    Adverse possession
    Adequate assurance of performance

Question 19
Corporate officers are best described as:

    directors elected by a corporation's shareholders.
    partners pursuing a joint venture transaction
    owners of a corporation with limited liability for its debts and obligations.
    employees appointed to manage the daily operations of a corporation.

Question 20
Which of the following scenarios is an example of law and ethics contradicting each other?

    A florist in the United States employs an illegal immigrant to help the immigrant and her family overcome their financial difficulties.
    A large apparel retailer copies the trademarked garment designs of a well-known fashion designer.
    A restaurateur, whose restaurant is violating labor laws, bribes a federal official to prevent him from reporting the violations.
    An iron-ore manufacturing company provides its employees with high-quality safety equipment.

Question 21
Robert orders coffee while having breakfast in a diner. He suffers third-degree burn injuries when the coffee accidently spills on him. He presses charges against the diner for failing to notify him that the coffee was exceptionally hot. In this scenario, the diner is guilty of a(n) __________.

    unintentional tort
    intent crime
    intentional tort

Question 22
Which of the following best describes the term warranty?

    It refers to the transfer of possession of stolen property to a person who had bought the property without the knowledge that it has been stolen.
    It is a purchaser's title to goods obtained by the impersonation of another person.
    It refers to the terms in a sales contract stipulating the party that will bear the risk of loss of goods during shipment.
    It is the seller's assurance to a buyer that the goods sold meet certain standards of quality.
    nonintent crime

Question 23
Which of the following is a characteristic of torts?

    They are punishable by the death penalty.
    They are usually not tried by the jury.
    They are brought to court by a plaintiff.
    They are tried by criminal procedure.

Question 24
A group boycott occurs when:

    competitors at one level of distribution collectively refuse to deal with others at a different level of distribution.
    parties enter into a trade agreement that has greater anticompetitive effects than procompetitive effects.
    parties at different levels of distribution enter into an agreement to adhere to a schedule that will stabilize prices.
    competitors agree that they will distribute their goods to only a particular portion of the market.

Question 25
A goal of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to:

    control and closely monitor the financial accounts of all corporations in the United States.
        allow directors and executive officers of public companies to be given personal loans from the companies.

end conflicts of interest, establishing better corporate governance.

enable smooth settlement of alleged fraud among major corporations.

Question 26
Helen buys a toy railway set for her 3-year-old son, Ben. The product's cover mentions that the toy is suitable for children only aged between 3 and 12. While playing with the toy one evening, without Helen's supervision, Ben chokes on an inch-long engine driver figure that forms part of the train. Although he survives, he is traumatized by the incident. For which type of defect can Helen sue the toy manufacturer?

    Failure to tamperproof
    Defect in product packaging
    Defect in manufacture
    Failure to warn

Question 27
Insider trading is considered illegal because:

    it results in excessive losses for the company.
    it makes use of nonmaterial public information.
    it fails to account for the short-swing profits brought into a company.
    it limits investment opportunities for the investing public.

Question 28
When an employer does not discriminate against women in general but treats women above the age of 40 differently, the employer is practicing __________.

    color discrimination
    sex-plus discrimination
    religious discrimination
    racial discrimination

Question 29
The power and authority to exclude competition or control prices is known as __________.

    enumerated power
    monopoly power
    implied power
    reserved power

Question 30
Which of the following is a category of torts?
    Professional malpractice
    Personal liability
    Strict liability
    Nonintent crime

FINA422 Assignment 2

Consider a U.S.-based manufacturing firm that is considering a move to the United Kingdom. Because the company will be using the British pound in its operations, the management team has hired you to explain the Purchasing Power Parity Theory.

In a 3-page report, you will research the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) Theory in exchange rate determination. Include the following:

• Discuss how PPP can or cannot be a determinant of currency exchange rate differences among countries.
• If you assume PPP holds, could it help in forecasting the future exchange rate of the British pound?

 

 

 

FINA412 Assignment 2

Go to the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency Web site. Find the most recent levels of futures, forwards, options, swaps, and credit derivatives using the following steps:

1. Click on "Publications."
2. From there, click on "Other Publications/Reports."
3. Then, click on "Quarterly Report on Bank Derivatives Activities."
4. Click on the most recent date, and download the latest report. The tables containing the data are at the bottom of the document.

Then, discuss the following:

 

 

• How have these values increased since 2015? 
• Use charts or tables to illustrate the difference between the numbers

 

FIN571 Week-2 Stock Valuation and Analysis (2019)

Stock Valuation and Analysis

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Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to allow students the opportunity to research a Fortune 500 company stock using the popular online research tool Yahoo Finance. The tool allows the student to review analyst reports and other key financial information necessary to evaluate the stock value and make an educated decision on whether to invest. 

Assignment Steps 

Resources: Yahoo Finance 

Select a Fortune 500 Company from one of the following industries:

·         Pharmaceutical

·         Energy

·         Retail

·         Automotive

·         Computer Hardware

·         Manufacturing

·         Mining

AccessYahoo Finance and enter the company name. 

Review the financial information and statistics provided for the stock you selected and answer the following:

·         What is the ticker symbol of the company you chose?

·         What is the Current Stock Price?

·         What is the Market Cap for the stock you chose?

·         What is the Price to Earnings Ratio?

·         What is the Dividend and Yield?

·         What is the Enterprise Value?

·         What is the Beta?

·         Was there a Stock Split, and if so, when?

·         What was the closing stock price for the last 5 days?

·         What was the 52 Week High for this stock?

·         What is the Book Value per Share?

·         What type of rating are analysts recommending (i.e. buy, hold, etc.)?

·         What is the target price analysts are predicting for this stock?

·         What is the analyst's average revenue estimate for next year?

·         What are some of the significant news items and press releases made by the company over the last year? 

Explain in 700 words why you would or would not recommend investing in this stock.

·         Describe the relationship between the value of the stock and the price to earnings ratio. 

·         What information does the Market Capitalization (Market Cap) and Beta provide to the investor?

 

FIN571 Week-1 Financial Ratio Analysis 2019

WEEK 1

Financial Ratio Analysis

Purpose of Assignment

The purpose of this assignment is to help students gain a better understanding of the financial statements used for corporate financial reporting and the key ratios used to make business decisions. 

Assignment Steps 

Select a Fortune 500 Company from one of the following industries:

·         Pharmaceutical

·         Energy

·         Retail

·         Automotive

·         Computer Hardware

Review the balance sheet and income statement in the company's 2015 Annual Report. 

Calculate the following ratios using Microsoft^® Excel^®:

·         Current Ratio

·         Quick Ratio

·         Debt Equity Ratio

·         Inventory Turnover Ratio

·         Receivables Turnover Ratio

·         Total Assets Turnover Ratio

·         Profit Margin (Net Margin) Ratio

·         Return on Assets Ratio

Analyze in 1,050 words why each ratio is important for financial decision making. 

Submit your analysis as well as your calculations.

 

 

 

 

FIN571 Week 6 Final Exam SCORE 97 PERCENT

Question 1
Which one of these is a correct definition?

    Long-term debt is defined as a residual claim on a firm's assets.
    Tangible assets are fixed assets such as patents.
    Current assets are assets with short lives, such as inventory.
    Current liabilities are debts that must be repaid in 18 months or less.
    Net working capital equals current assets plus current liabilities.

Question 2
The primary goal of financial management is to:

    Minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.
    Maintain steady growth in both sales and net earnings.
    Maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.
    Maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.
    Avoid financial distress.

Question 3
Which one of the following statements about preferred stock is true?

    There is no significant difference in the voting rights granted to preferred and common shareholders.
    Unlike dividends paid on common stock, dividends paid on preferred stock are a tax-deductible expense.
    If preferred dividends are non-cumulative, then preferred dividends not paid in a particular year will be carried forward to the next year.
    Preferred stock usually has a stated liquidating value of $100 per share.
    Dividends on preferred stock payable during the next twelve months are considered to be a corporate liability.

Question 4
A firm has a total debt ratio of .47. This means the firm has 47 cents in debt for every:

    $.53 in total assets.
    $1 in total equity.
    $.53 in total equity.
    $1 in fixed assets.
    $1 in current assets.

Question 5
The higher the inventory turnover, the:

    Lesser the amount of inventory held by a firm.
    Greater the amount of inventory held by a firm.
Less time inventory items remain on the shelf.
    Higher the inventory as a percentage of total assets.
    Longer it takes a firm to sell its inventory.

Question 6
The process of planning and managing a firm's long-term assets is called:

Capital budgeting.
    Working capital management.
    Agency cost analysis.
    Financial depreciation.
    Capital structure.

Question 7
All else equal, the contribution margin must increase as:

The variable cost per unit declines.
    Sales price per unit declines.
    The sales price minus the fixed cost per unit increases.
    Both the sales price and variable cost per unit increase.
    The fixed cost per unit declines.

Question 8
An interest rate that is compounded monthly, but is expressed as if the rate were compounded annually, is called the _____ rate.

    Periodic interest
    Effective annual
    Stated interest
    Daily interest
    Compound interest

Question 9
Futures contracts contrast with forward contracts by:

    Providing an option for the buyer rather than an obligation.
    Allowing the parties to negotiate the contract size.
    Allowing the seller to deliver any day during the delivery month.
    Marking to the market on a weekly basis.
    Requiring contract fulfillment by the two originating parties.

Question 10
The discount rate that makes the net present value of an investment exactly equal to zero is called the:

    Equalizer.
    External rate of return.
Internal rate of return.
    Profitability index.
    Average accounting return.

Question 11
Book value:

    Is adjusted to market value whenever the market value exceeds the stated book value.
    Generally tends to exceed market value when fixed assets are included.
    Is equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.
    Is based on historical cost.
    Is more of a financial than an accounting valuation.

Question 12
A project has an initial cost of $2,250. The cash inflows are $0, $500, $900, and $700 for Years 1 to 4, respectively. What is the payback period?

    3.98 years
    2.97 years
    2.84 years
never
    3.92 years

Question 13
Lois is purchasing an annuity that will pay $5,000 annually for 20 years, with the first annuity payment made on the date of purchase. What is the value of the annuity on the purchase date given a discount rate of 7 percent?

    $56,677.98
    $56,191.91
    $66,916.21
    $52,970.07
    $54,282.98

Question 14
The excess return you earn by moving from a relatively risk-free investment to a risky investment is called the:

    Arithmetic average return.
    Risk premium.
    Geometric average return.
    Time premium.
    Inflation premium.

Question 15
Ratios that measure a firm's ability to pay its bills over the short run without undue stress are known as:

    Asset management ratios.
    Profitability ratios.
    Market value ratios.
    Long-term solvency measures.
    Liquidity measures.

Question 16
Which term defines the tax rate that applies to the next dollar of taxable income earned?

    Total
    Deductible
    Marginal
    Residual
    Average

Question 17
Which one of the following statements is false?

    Investments in accounts receivable equal average daily sales times average collection period.
    Aging schedules are used to monitor accounts receivable.
    If sales are seasonal, the percentages shown on an aging schedule will vary during the year.
    An aging schedule includes only overdue accounts.
    Collection efforts may involve legal action.

Question 18
The underlying assumption of the dividend growth model is that a stock is worth:

    An amount computed as the next annual dividend divided by the required rate of return.
    The present value of the future income that the stock is expected to generate.
    The same amount as any other stock that pays the same current dividend and has the same required rate of return.
    The same amount to every investor regardless of their desired rate of return.
    An amount computed as the next annual dividend divided by the market rate of return.

Question 19
One disadvantage of the corporate form of business ownership is the:

    Limited liability protection provided for all owners.
Firms ability to raise cash.
Double taxation of profits.
    Unlimited life of the firm.
    Difficulties encountered when changing ownership.

Question 20
All else held constant, interest rate risk will increase when the time to maturity:

    Decreases or the coupon rate increases.
    Increases or the coupon rate increases.
    Decreases or the coupon rate decreases.
    Decreases and the coupon rate equals zero.
Increases or the coupon rate decreases.

Question 21
The costs of avoiding a bankruptcy filing by a financially distressed firm are classified as _____ costs.

    Flotation
    Capital structure
    Indirect bankruptcy
    Financial solvency
    Direct bankruptcy

Question 22
The market price of a bond increases when the:

    Discount rate decreases.
    Coupon is paid annually rather than semiannually.
    Coupon rate decreases.
    Par value decreases.
    Face value decreases.

Question 23
A firm has a debt-equity ratio of .64, a pretax cost of debt of 8.5 percent, and a required return on assets of 12.6 percent. What is the cost of equity if you ignore taxes?

    16.38%
    8.55%
    8.06%
    15.22%
    11.12%

Question 24
Under the _______ method, the underwriter buys the securities for less than the offering price and accepts the risk of not selling the issue, while under the _______ method, the underwriter does not purchase the shares but merely acts as an agent.

    Seasoned; unseasoned
Firm commitment; best efforts
    Best efforts; firm commitment
    Negotiated offer; competitive offer
    Competitive offer; negotiated offer

Question 25
The cash flow resulting from a firm's ongoing, normal business activities is referred to as the:

    Cash flow to retained earnings.
    Operating cash flow.
    Cash flow to investors.
    Net capital spending.
    Additions to net working capital.

Question 26
Which one of the following is an example of a nondiversifiable risk?

    A well-managed firm reduces its work force and automates several jobs
    A key employee suddenly resigns and accepts employment with a key competitor
    A well-respected president of a firm suddenly resigns
    A well-respected chairman of the Federal Reserve Bank suddenly resigns
    A poorly managed firm suddenly goes out of business due to lack of sales

Question 27
Which one of these statements is correct concerning the cash cycle?

    A positive cash cycle is preferable to a negative cash cycle.
    Adopting a more liberal accounts receivable policy will tend to decrease the cash cycle.
    Increasing the accounts payable period increases the cash cycle.
    The longer the cash cycle, the more likely a firm will need external financing.
    The cash cycle can exceed the operating cycle if the payables period is equal to zero.

Question 28
An efficient capital market is one in which:

    Security prices reflect all available information.
    Taxes are irrelevant.
    All investments earn the market rate of return.
    Brokerage commissions are zero.
    Securities always offer a positive NPV.

Question 29
You plan to invest $6,500 for three years at 4 percent simple interest. What will your investment be worth at the end of the three years?

    $7,280.00
    $6,941.11
    $7,250.00
    $7,311.62
    $6,760.00

Question 30
What is the present value of $6,811 to be received in one year if the discount rate is 6.5 percent?

    $6,671.13
    $7,253.72
    $6,643.29
$6,395.31
    $6,023.58