ETH321T Week 4 Practice Assignment (2020)

ETH 321
Week 4 Practice Assignment
1. What is the correct definition of assignee?
o A person accepting contract duties
o A person accepting contract rights
o A person making a contract assignment
o A person transferring contract duties

2. Which of the following contracts are not required to be in writing?
o A contract between Glinda and her mother for her to not marry her boyfriend Harry.
o A contract for labor intended to finish before one year
o A contract to lease property with a guaranty contract
o A contract to sell real estate, with $800 per month payments

3. Callie wants to work for an insurance firm. Before she is hired, the firm wants her to sign a non-compete agreement that she will not work for any other insurance firm in the state or any surrounding state for the next ten years. Which of the following is most likely true?
o This agreement is legal as long as Callie can find a job at least one year after she quits.
o This agreement is probably too excessive to be enforceable.
o This agreement is legal and enforceable.
o This agreement is illegal and punishable under usury laws.

4. Claire and Donny want to use a contract to enforce a business deal. Which of the following would most solidly enforce to terms of their agreement?
o An informal, implied contract
o An informal, express contract
o A formal, express contract
o A formal, implied contract

5. Stetzon, a merchant, makes an unconscionably unfair deal with another merchant, Cheri. Cheri wants to pursue a remedy when she discovers her disadvantage in the contract. What recourse does Cheri have under UCC?
o Cheri may rewrite the contract, to which Stetzon must comply.
o As a merchant, Cheri has no recourse.
o Cheri may have a court alter the contract.
o Cheri may wholly void the contract.

6. What are punitive damages?
o Damages awarded to cover a foreseeable loss
o Damages awarded to punish gross breaches of contract
o Damages awarded when non-breaching party sues a breaching party
o Damages awarded to return a non-breaching party to its former position

7. What is the correct definition of offeror?
o Offeror's withdrawal
o Offeree's refusal
o Person who receives an offer
o Person who sets the terms of an offer

8. What are compensatory damages?
o Damages awarded to cover a foreseeable loss
o Damages awarded to return a non-breaching party to its former position
o Damages awarded when non-breaching party sues a breaching party
o Damages awarded to punish gross breaches of contract

9. What is the definition of Fraud?
o An intentional misrepresentation of material fact
o A unilateral of bilateral misunderstanding of value or fact
o Pressure exerted on a person to force him or her to perform under serious threat
o Domination of another person so thoroughly as to remove free will

10. Which of the following would most likely qualify as substantial performance?
o Vivian is under contract to paint 10 paintings, but only finished 8 because she is offered a more lucrative contract from someone else.
o Leroy doesn't finish his last 3 days of yard work under contract because his mother has a medical emergency.
o Lily contracts to paint house green, but decides to paint it blue instead.
o Out of spite, Wally stops performing work 10 days before his contract is finished.

11. Lou picks up a desktop mouse he finds lying on a desk at school. The next day Travis recognizes the mouse as the one he left behind the day before but tells Lou he "might as well have it." The mouse is:
o A gift
o Abandoned property
o Mislaid property
o None of the above

12. Which of the following is a definition of novelty?
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward
o How an invention works
o Usefulness of an invention
o Newness of an invention

13. Which of the following would most likely be considered fair use?
o Playing a newly-released movie at a free drive-in movie
o Selling copies of music CDs that you burned yourself.
o Replicating the choreography of a famous dancer for use in your own stage production
o Playing an actor's short film in school and doing a speech review of the work.

14. Perry started a new company called Thixxix, along with a distinctive trademark mark meant to identify the company. Perry doesn't bother to register the trademark. The year following the creation of his company, Perry sees a trademark logo for another company that looks just like the mark for Thixxix. Which of the following is true?
15. Torey broke into a competitor's office to steal a trade secret. She is eventually caught. If she has gained from the use of the trade secret, which of the following is true?
o Torey must stop using the trade secret for her benefit.
o More than one response is correct.
o Torey must give the profits she has made to the competitor.
o Torey will pay her competitor for lost profits.

16. BooneTech has a superior instrumentation system for doing work in its factory. It regularly offers tours so people can come and observe the special equipment. When a competitor begins to use similar equipment, BooneTech sues the competitor for utilizing a trade secret. Which of the following is true?
17. Which of the following is the correct definition of utility?
o Usefulness of an invention
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward
o How an invention works
o Newness of an invention

18. Which of the following is the correct definition of non-obviousness?
o Newness of an invention
o Any process, machine, manufacture, or composition of matter
o Usefulness of an invention
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward

19. Jerry wants to rent out living space to a tenant. He wants the benefit of steady rent payments and the ease of evicting the tenant when he feels it would be convenient. Jerry also wants to formalize the tenancy with a rental agreement so that his rights and privileges are explicitly accounted for and agreed to in writing. Which form of tenancy should Jerry use in renting out his space?
o Tenancy at sufferance
o More than one option is correct
o Tenancy at will
o Periodic tenancy

20. A __________ may have an infinite duration.
o Tenancy at will
o Tenancy at sufferance
o More than one option is correct
o Periodic tenancy

Exam 412756RR - Group Insurance

1. What is the term used to describe a situation in which an employee maintains his or her group coverage after employment is terminated?
A. Persistency
B. Comity
C. Underwriting
D. Portability

2. Berk's Manufacturing requires all of its nondisabled employees to retire when they become eligible for Medicare. What law is this company breaking?
A. Mental Health Parity Act
B. Social Security Act
C. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

3. Categories contained in the benefit schedule under which all employees must be sorted are called
A. eligibility determinations.
B. covered classifications.
C. insurability tiers.
D. general groups.

4. Which of the following statements concerning the traditional form of accidental death and dismemberment coverage is correct?
A. Death benefits are payable only if death occurs within 30 days of an accident.
B. Death benefits are automatically paid to the employee's spouse if an employee is married.
C. Dismemberment benefits are usually paid for occupational accidents only.
D. Coverage usually ceases at retirement even if some or all of the basic group life insurance continues.

5. Which of the following causes of disability would be covered under a typical group short-term disability income contract?
A. Illness that allows for partial employment
B. Self-inflicted injuries
C. Injury eligible for workers' compensation
D. Drug addiction

6. Which of the following is usually integrated with long-term disability income plans?
A. State welfare programs
B. Workers' compensation laws
C. Individual disability income contracts purchased by employees.
D. Cafeteria plans

7. Regarding underwriting considerations, what information may an employer have to provide to an insurance company to show that the company is insurable?
A. The employees' health histories
B. References from customers
C. The firm's total number of employees
D. The employer's financial records

8. The short-term disability benefits from an employer are combined with _______ to make sure that an employee doesn't receive benefits that are more than his or her salary.
A. earnings from employment
B. pension-plan payments
C. sick-leave plans
D. workers' compensation payments

9. Which of the following statements concerning the Pregnancy Discrimination Act is correct?
A. It allows pregnancy benefits to be excluded for female employees who are unmarried.
B. It requires benefits to be provided for elective abortions.
C. It requires that pregnancy-related medical conditions and other medical conditions be treated in the same manner for purposes of extended medical expense benefits after termination of employment.
D. It requires any female dependents of employees who have coverage under a group medical plan to be provided with benefits for pregnancy.

10. If an employee, who has $100,000 in group term life insurance, dies at the age of 67, what amount may be paid to the beneficiaries on his or her death if reductions are taken based on age?

A. $65,000
B. $89,000
C. $35,000
D. $67,000

11.Which of the following statements concerning the federal tax treatment of life insurance proceeds under a group term life insurance contract is correct?
A. The growth of group term insurance has not been affected by federal tax laws.
B. An absolute assignment of all incidents of ownership will remove the proceeds from the insured's estate as long as the assignment is made within three years of death.
C. A spouse can exclude the first $5,000 of interest income from taxation if the proceeds are paid in installments under a settlement option.
D. No tax deduction is allowed if the employer is named as beneficiary of an employee's life insurance coverage.

12. Which of the following statements concerning sick-leave plans is correct?
A. Traditionally, many sick-leave plans were highly regulated.
B. Surveys indicate that about 10% of employees with short-term coverage obtain benefits under sick-leave plans.
C. Most plans require an employee to satisfy a probationary period before becoming eligible for benefits.
D. Most plans are designed to provide benefits equal to no more than 50% of an employee's regular pay.

13. Which of the following statements about the underwriting of group universal life insurance is correct?
A. Underwriting standards are not typically affected by available coverage amounts.
B. Group universal life insurance products are not typically considered for employers with less than 200 employees.
C. Most insurers require 100 percent participation.
D. Increases in the amount of coverage are often subject to evidence of insurability.

14. An employer with fewer than 15 employees might be required to offer medical insurance benefits to a pregnant employee because the
A. employer may be held responsible if the child is born with medical problems.
B. employer provides sick leave for employees.
C. state in which the employer operates requires it.
D. employer offers medical insurance benefits to nonpregnant employees.

15. What's the primary reason for the increase in popularity of voluntary benefits in recent years?
A. State legislation that mandates benefits
B. Employers' attempts to contain the rising costs of employee benefits
C. The federal government's attempt to make medical expense insurance more widely available
D. Guaranteed-issue underwriting for all plans

16. The relationship between an employer and an insured multiple-employer trust is spelled out in which of the following?
A. A certificate of insurance
B. ERISA fiduciary standards
C. The master contract
D. A joinder agreement

17. If an employer has offices in New York, New Jersey, and Los Angeles, how would that employer determine which state regulations govern the group insurance contract?
A. The state with the most employees would govern the contract.
B. The state with the most stringent regulations would govern the contract.
C. The state in which the insurance contract was delivered would govern the contract.
D. Each office would abide by the requirements of its own state.

18. The provisions in disability income contracts concerning termination are the same as those found in group life insurance, with what one notable exception?
A. A conversion privilege is rarely included.
B. The employee can continue coverage by enrolling in an individual plan.
C. The employee can terminate coverage and withdraw cash value.
D. The employee can be directly billed to continue coverage at a higher expense.

19. Bob, a 10-year employee of Company X, is in the Army Reserve. Bob's Reserve unit was called to serve overseas for three months. Company X told Bob that his position would be held for him until he returned. Bob was permanently injured, losing an arm and a foot while fighting overseas. What will happen when he returns?
A. Bob would receive no disability payments.
B. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay after his 30 days of sick leave were used.
C. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X as soon as he returned to the United States.
D. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X for the first six months of his disability and 60 percent thereafter.

20. Which of the following statements concerning retired-lives reserves is correct?
A. They must be established and maintained with an insurance company.
B. Investment earnings of the reserve are usually taxed to employees.
C. Their major advantage is the ability to prefund postretirement coverage in excess of $50,000 for all employees on a tax-deductible basis.

D. If properly designed, they will enable an employer to make currently tax-deductible contributions during employees' working years

Exam 412757RR - Group Medical Expense Benefits

Exam: 412757RR - Group Medical Expense Benefits
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Questions 1 to 20:
Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.

1. Which of the following statements concerning extended-care facility benefits is correct?
A. Benefits are usually provided only if 24-hour-a-day nursing care is needed.
B. Benefits are not contingent upon a prior hospitalization.
C. Benefits usually are provided for domiciliary care for the aged.
D. Benefits usually are provided for inpatient treatment of drug or alcohol abuse.

2. An HMO that contracts solely with two or more independent groups of physicians to provide medical services to its subscribers is called a
A. mixed-model HMO.
B. group-model HMO.
C. network-model HMO.
D. individual practice association.

3. Which of the following statements about second opinions is correct?
A. If the first and second opinion conflict, the patient must make a decision or pay for a third opinion out of pocket.
B. More plans are requiring mandatory second opinions because it has proven to contain costs.
C. Mandatory provisions often apply only to a specified list of procedures.
D. Voluntary provisions require the insured to accept the final opinion or face financial consequences.

4. Which of the following statements concerning the NAIC Small Employer Health Insurance Availability Model Act is correct?
A. Insurance companies can use the same policies in multiple states.
B. If coverage is made available to employees, it must also be made available to their dependents.
C. All providers of medical expense coverage are required to offer coverage to small employers.
D. Pre-existing conditions provisions are not allowed.

5. The use of health savings accounts and other self-directed medical expense plans typically involve the use of medical expense policies.
A. Blue Cross and Blue Shield
B. self-insured
C. high-deductible
D. traditional

6. When Blue Cross first began, it was in the business of providing coverage for
A. physician care for the financially needy.
B. physician care for the elderly.
C. hospitalization.
D. prescriptions.

7. State reactions to managed care backlash include prohibitions against which of the following?
A. Point-of-service options
B. Direct access to specialists
C. Any-willing-provider laws
D. Provider gag clauses

8. All the following expenses are often subject to internal limitations under major medical policies except
A. diagnostic X-rays and laboratory services.
B. home healthcare benefits.
C. treatment for mental and nervous disorders.
D. hospital room and board.

9. The medical expense insurance-like organizations that eventually came to be called Blue Cross plans were initially run by
A. charity organizations.
B. employers.
C. physicians.
D. hospitals.

10. Jim and Betty are married with one child, and both are employed by the same company. Jim, who was born on February 9, 1968, has been with the company for 10 years. Betty, who was born on May 12, 1965, has been with the company for 8 years. Who is the primary provider of health care coverage for the child?
A. Betty, because she's older than Jim
B. Jim, because of his date of birth
C.Both Betty and Jim, because they have the same insurance
D. Jim, because he's been with the company longer than Betty

11. Mary goes to the doctor and pays for her visit. When she gets home, she must fill out a form and submit it to the insurance company so she can be reimbursed. What type of insurance does she most likely have?
A. HMO
B. The Blues
C. Indemnity
D. POS

12. Which of the following would typically be covered under home healthcare benefits?
A. 24-hour nursing care
B. Prescription drugs
C. Physical therapy
D. Diagnostic testing

13. Which of the following statements concerning the Mental Health Parity Act is correct?
A. It requires employers to make benefits available for mental illness.
B. The provisions of the act only apply to employers with more than 50 employees.
C. It requires alcoholism and drug addiction to be treated like any other mental illness.
D. It prohibits different cost-sharing provisions for mental health benefits and other medical and surgical benefits.

14. Which of the following statements concerning basic medical expense benefits is correct?
A. Hospital expense coverage usually provides coverage for emergency room treatment of accidental injuries at any time following an accident.
B. Surgical expense coverage usually provides benefits for surgery in a hospital only.
C. Hospital expense coverage usually expresses room-and-board benefits as the full cost of semiprivate accommodations.
D. Physicians' visits expense coverage must always include out-of-hospital visits.

15. A benefit that does not try to cure a person's ailments, but rather attempts to make a patient comfortable in his or her last days or weeks before death, is called
A. home health care.
B. terminal care.
C. extended care.
D. hospice.

16. Which of the following statements concerning point-of-service plans is correct?
A. The term point-of-service implies a lesser degree of managed care than is found in most PPOs.
B. They are hybrid arrangements that combine aspects of an HMO with a PPO.
C. A member of a point-of-service plan can never go outside the plan's network without informing the plan.
D. They prohibit treatment outside an exclusive-provider network unless the network does not contain an appropriate specialist.

17. Company X must make sure that it provides HMO coverage as an option in its benefit-selection process. What act would require Company X to do this?
A. Financial Services Modernization Act
B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
D. Health Maintenance Organization Act

18. Which of the following types of medical expense plans has the highest degree of managed care?
A. Point-of-service plans
B. Independent practice association HMOs
C. Closed-panel HMOs
D. Preferred provider organizations

19. A benefit plan that provides a less expensive choice for treatment is often a smart way to reduce costs. An example of this type of plan is
A. implementing maximum benefits.
B. allowing the use of birthing centers.
C. allowing longer hospital stays.
D. requiring higher deductibles.

20. Which of the following statements concerning multiple-option plans is correct?
A. Because the plans are subject to experience rating, costs may be higher.
B. Non-federally qualified HMOs are never used in multiple-option plans.
C. They may allow experience rating of an employer's entire medical expense plan, including HMO coverage.

D. They increase administrative complexity if an employer offers more than one type of medical expense coverage.

Exam 500664RR - International Environmental Forces

1. Market screening is derived from
A. current market trends.
B. environmental scanning.
C. local sociocultural forces.
D. global opportunities and threats.

2. Market screening is divided into
A. segment screening and environmental screening.
B. region screening and segment screening.
C. environmental screening and country screening.
D. country screening and segment screening.

3. _______ is/are economic data that correlate highly with market demand for a product.
A. Market factors
B. Market indicators
C. Trend analysis
D. Cluster analysis

4. After Saudi Arabia, the country with the greatest heavy oil reserves is
A. Iraq.
B. Canada.
C. Iran.
D. Venezuela.

5. Understanding the religious beliefs of foreign markets is
A. useful, because religions affect attitudes and beliefs across cultures.
B. useful because there's always the possibility of conversion.
C. not necessary because religion isn't a part of culture; it's beyond culture.
D. not really necessary because religion is one and the Truth is universal.

6. The two types of market screening procedures are
A. trend analysis and cluster analysis.
B. country screening and segment screening.
C. initial screening and secondary screening.
D. market indicators and market factors.

7. Trade names are protected under
A. the International Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
B. many local laws in most countries, so illegal trademark use is a local issue.
C. national laws in all UN member countries.
D. long-standing convention, but no legal agreements.

8. There are several criteria for segmenting markets. Which of the following are two criteria for segmenting?
A. Small and elusive
B. Large and definable
C. Diverse and accessible
D. Unclassified and unfulfilled

9. The concept of strict liability, as found in the US legal system, applies
A. to harm done by the designer/manufacturer without the need to prove negligence.
B. strictly to harm caused by the designer/manufacturer, so no penalties outside of damages can be awarded.
C. to harm done within narrow limits, considering the design of the product.
D. to children harmed by products in both the United States and the EU.

10. In a personal interview or phone survey, some respondents want to help the interviewer out of politeness or just to please the interviewer. This is known as
A. social desirability bias.
B. interviewer bias.
C. response bias.
D. market research.

11. The International Energy Agency concluded in 2010 that
A. a worldwide energy revolution based on low-carbon technologies is under way.
B. oil demand must immediately drop worldwide by 10 percent.
C. oil reserves would dry up by 2020.
D. sustainable energy development was not feasible.

12. In what order is the country screening process presented in the textbook?
A. Basic needs, economic/financial, political, sociocultural, and competitive
B. Basic needs, competitive, political, economic/financial, and sociocultural
C.Basic needs, sociocultural, economic/financial, political, and competitive
D. Basic needs, political, economic/financial, competitive, and sociocultural

13. Average growth rate in commercial energy use and real growth rate in GDP compose the _______ index.
A. e-commerce readiness
B. market size
C. market factor
D. market growth rate

14. Hiring and promoting employees on the basis of the specific local context in which the subsidiary operates is a/an _______ orientation.
A. polycentric
B. regiocentric
C. ethnocentric
D. geocentric

15. Hong Kong is seen as a more desirable location for foreign firms than Shanghai because
A. Hong Kong has a tradition of law adopted from British colonialism.
B. the Chinese government has given Hong Kong dispensation to act as a sovereign nation.
C. Shanghai's main language is Mandarin, while Hong Kong's is Cantonese.
D. Hong Kong remains a British colony.

16. Payments made to expatriates to compensate for extra costs of living abroad are called
A. differentials.
B. bonuses.
C. allowances.
D. premiums.

17. Enforcing contracts that cross international borders is
A. the responsibility of Interpol.
B. secondary to who has possession of the goods, regardless of title.
C. quite complicated and governed in most nations by the CISG.
D. simply a matter of applying the local law to the contract.

18. Patent trolling is the process of
A. looking for loopholes in patent protection and exploiting them.
B. legal research that uncovers obscure, deceased patent holders and liberates their inventions.
C. searching out patents that have expired and negotiating their replacements.
D. recording and registering patents in foreign countries to protect the firm's IP.

19. When host-country nationals are employed
A. they're already familiar with the home country.
B. they're familiar with local customs, culture, and language.
C. training costs are a minimum.
D. any conflict of interest is removed.


20. In _______ screening, the important variables for segmentation are commonalities in needs and wants among consumers across nationalities.
A. country
B. product
C. segment

D. cultural

C08 American Government Presidential Emergency Powers

Background

Throughout American history, presidents have faced emergencies that would require swift and decisive action. While the founding fathers gave the executive branch wide-ranging power and flexibility in running the executive branch, no specific emergency powers were listed in the Constitution. Any emergency power granted to the president would be implied in the Constitution rather than specifically expressed. As a result of this, Congress has been called upon to grant emergency powers to presidents throughout US history. In other times of emergency, presidents would use executive orders to respond to crisis. In this paper, you'll explore these powers, their constitutionality, and your opinion on these powers.

Assignment Instructions

With this project you'll answer some essential questions around the main topic question:

Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency? If so, what should be the limits on such powers?

You should use research to form your opinions and support your arguments. The paper should address the central question and include the topics provided to help you organize and present the information. This project will be four to six pages in total.

Topics

Try to address each topic or set of questions directly and as thoroughly as possible.

National Emergencies Act (approximately 1-1.5 pages) Research the National Emergencies Act (1976) and answer the following:

• What is the National Emergencies Act of 1976 and what powers does it grant to the president?
• What criteria are set up for when and why a president could declare a national emergency?
• Research and provide information on a time in the past 10 years when this act has been used by a president to declare an emergency. Provide information on how this move was viewed by the major political parties (Republican and Democrat) at the time the emergency was declared.

Historical Emergencies (approximately 1-1.5 pages): Pick and research three times in American history when a president used power outside of his usual constitutional powers to address a crisis and complete the following in two pages:

• Describe the crisis and the action taken by the president to address that crisis.
• Did the president in each of these situations face pushback from Congress or the public? Describe the nature of that opposition.

Constitutionality of presidential emergency actions (approximately 1-1.5 pages): Choose two times in American history when a president used powers in an emergency and the Supreme Court weighed in on the constitutionality of the president's actions. Pick one in which the Supreme Court upheld emergency actions and one in which it struck down a president's actions.

• Describe the emergency action taken by the president, the court case that challenged it, and the result of that case. Include the reasoning provided by the justices in making their decisions.

Your opinion/thesis: Based on what you've researched, answer the question:

• Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency? If so, what should be the limits on such powers?
• Use expert opinions and historical examples to support your arguments.

   Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency?

CHFD225 Week 2 Assignment 1 The American Family Over Time

Instructions

The American Family has undergone many changes throughout the years. These changes have shaped what defines a family as well as how a family functions. Create a Power Point presentation or a FREE Prezi Presentation (www.prezi.com) that shows a timeline of changes that have impacted the American Family. (For the free version of Prezi, simply click "Get Started", then navigate over to the "Basic" instead of "Individual or Teams" and you will see the free version.)

Your timeline must include a minimum of 8 events. Each event is to be identified by time period/date, the event being chronicled and the impact of the event on the American Family. Your presentation must include a cover slide and a reference slide. Your information must be supported by a minimum of 2 references. Please see the grading rubric below.

 

https://slideplayer.com/slide/12162678/

https://www.slideserve.com/hanne/the-american-family-powerpoint-ppt-presentation

CHFD225 Week 2 Discussion - Stressors that Impact Diverse Populations

Please review the US Citizenship test questions in the video using the link below. After viewing, please share with us your experience. What was your reaction to the questions? Were you prepared for the level of difficulty of the questions? Was it stressful?  Were you surprised by anything?

U .S. Citizenship Naturalization Test