ETH321T Week 3 Practice Assignment (2020)

ETH 321
Week 3 Practice Assignment
1. Lexi buys a food processor and uses it without any problems. She loans the processor to Jill, and Jill is injured when a part flies off the machine.  If the former rule of privity of contract were in place, which of the following is true?
o Lexi can hold the manufacturer liable for Jill's injury.
o Jill can hold the manufacturer liable for her injury.
o Jill can hold the manufacturer liable for her injury as long as Lexi was in the room when she got hurt.
o Jill cannot hold the manufacturer responsible for her injury.

2. For years, Lily has been thinking up a plan to pull off a perfect bank robbery. She tells someone about her plans but never robs the bank. Which of the following is true?
o Lily has committed a crime because robbing a bank is a serious offense.
o Lily has committed a crime because she told someone about her plan.
o Lily has not committed a crime if it is determined that her intent is not real.
o Lily has not committed a crime because she never acted on her plan.

3. What is the definition of the business crime of fraud?
o Permanent taking of property against a fiduciary relationship
o Conducting transactions with money which has been obtained through illegal means
o Agreement and planning to commit another crime
o Use of false pretenses to obtain property

4. What is the definition of insanity as a defense to crime?
o The defendant lacks understanding of what is right or wrong
o Trauma, illness, or a mental condition inhibits the defendant from being able to commit a crime
o The defendant's crime was committed due to unintentional misunderstanding
o The defendant is impaired from an ability to commit a crime with intent

5. Which of the following is true of defamation?
o The defamatory information may or may not be true to be actionable.
o A defamation tort exists whether the defamatory information was spread accidentally or on purpose.
o A defamation tort only exists when ten or more people hear the defamatory information.
o Both B and C

6. Rank these types of crimes from most to least serious:
 
o Capital, misdemeanor, felony, infraction
o Infraction, felony, misdemeanor, capital
o Capital, felony, misdemeanor, infraction
o Felony, infraction, capital, misdemeanor

7. Which of the following classifies as a tort?
o Kidnapping
o Embezzlement
o Assault
o Burglary

8. Which of the following would least likely qualify as trespass to chattel?
o Having your neighbor's cat spayed while your neighbor is on vacation
o Dying your boss's suit pink as a prank
o Borrowing your dad's car to get it waxed
o Conducting a cyberattack to infect a victim's computer with spyware

9. Which of the following is not a case of negligence?
o A butcher plays audio of howling dogs in the back of his shop to prank customers
o A doctor prescribes the wrong pills to a patient
o A building manager fails to repair an elevator and people get stuck inside
o A driver falls asleep at the wheel and causes an accident

10. What is the definition of the business crime of larceny?
o Taking property under threat of force
o Permanent taking of property against a fiduciary relationship
o Unlawful entrance with intent to commit a crime
o Unlawful, permanent taking of personal property

11. What is the result of frolic and detour?
o Removes liability from an employer while an employee pursues personal interests
o Imposes liability on an employer when an employee pursues both personal and business interests
o Removes liability from an employer while an employee is commuting

12. Jill and Carey have an agency relationship wherein Carey serves as an agent finding painting contracts for Jill. When Carey gets pregnant and wants to stop working for Jill:
o Carey has a duty to finish residual obligations under the agency.
o Jill has a duty to finish residual obligations under the agency.
o Carey may not terminate the agency without Jill's approval.
o Jill can do nothing.

13. Which of the following would be considered a situation of illegal employment discrimination?
o Rose, who has a disability, is rejected from a job position because she didn't like the accommodation the employer offered her.
o Gray, who has a disability, is rejected from a job position because he doesn't meet the essential job function qualifications.
o Marianne, who has a disability, is rejected from a job position because her employer has no experience accommodating persons with disabilities.
o Nicole, who has a disability, is rejected from a job position because her employer would have to pay too much for her accommodation.

14. Shane's business was recently forced by the OFFCP to enact an affirmative action plan in order to equalize the predominantly-white workforce. Jerome, a minority member, applies for the job and is rejected. Which of the following is true?
o Shane doesn't have to hire Jerome if he doesn't meet the job's specifications.
o Jerome was required to be hired for Shane's business, and he may sue Shane's business.
o None of the above are true.
o Jerome was required to be hired for Shane's business, and the OFCCP can sue Shane's business.

15. UrbanoCorp fires Alyssa, a 40-year-old employee. Which of the following is false?
o If UrbanoCorp has less than 20 employees, it doesn't have the burden of proving it had a legitimate reason for firing Alyssa.
o If UrbanoCorp has more than 20 employees, Alyssa has the burden of proving the company fired her because of her age.
o If UrbanoCorp has less than 20 employees, Alyssa can't sue the company for age discrimination.
o If UrbanoCorp has more than 20 employees, it will have the burden of proving it had a legitimate reason for firing Alyssa.

16. Quintin is a floor manager at a manufacturing plant. He oversees a diverse group of more than 50 employees. Based on what he feels are their natural abilities, Quintin has his African American workers on the assembly line, his white workers in Packing, and Hispanic workers in Receiving. Which of the following is true?
o Quintin's work assignments are unallowable because they give more favorable positions to Quintin's preferred class of worker.
o Quintin's work assignments are unallowable because they segregate and classify employees.
o Quintin's work assignments are allowable because his work force is diverse and nobody is being treated unfairly.
o Quintin's work assignments are allowable because his discrimination doesn't affect hiring or the conditions of employment.

17. DJ, an agent, is negotiating contracts for his boss's company. While in the course of seeking out contracts for his boss, DJ discovers a business opportunity that he would like to take advantage of. Which of the following is true?
o DJ may take advantage of his own business opportunities.
o DJ may take advantage of the opportunity as long as it does not conflict with the interests of his boss and the agency relationship.
o DJ may not take advantage of his own business opportunities.
o DJ May not take advantage of the opportunity unless he ends his agency relationship with his boss.

18. Shannah is a facilities coordinator working for a public university. She oversees a dozen employees doing custodial work and often ends up working over 40 hours per week. Which of the following is true?
o Shannah may be paid with compensatory time.
o Shannah is an exempted employee.
o More than one answer is correct.
o Shannah does not have to be paid overtime pay.

19. Which of the following was not an effect of the Norris LaGuardia Act?
o Prohibition against yellow dog contracts
o Rules removing unionization activities from the Sherman Act prohibitions
o Prohibition of federal injunctions in labor disputes
o Rules concerning collective bargaining

20. What is the definition of Wildcat strike?
o A strike used by a union to make management follow the law
o A strike used by a union to make management meet its demands
o A strike not authorized by the union

21. Red is a union official. He is faced with a problem when a union member breaks a union bylaw. To address the union member's fault, Red and union officials meet together and decide to kick the union member out of the union. Which of the following is true?
o The officials may discipline the union member without question.
o The officials may do nothing.
o The officials may discipline the union member only if he committed a crime.
o The officials may discipline the union member after hearing his case.

22. Which of the following is false concerning workers' concerted activity?
o Only union members may engage in concerted activity.
o Concerted activity is any effort of employees to join together to seek improvements in working conditions.
o Concerted activity is protected under Section 7 of the NLRA.
o Workers are protected from employer discrimination when they engage in concerted activity.

23. With respect to labor unions, employers used __________ to halt early unionizing efforts.
o Yellow dog contracts
o Federal injunctions
o Antitrust laws
o All of the above

24. Wages and hours are considered a(n) __________ bargaining subject.
o Permissive
o Yellow Dog
o Mandatory
o Illegal

25. Paige used up her 12 weeks of FMLA leave already this year in order to take care of her sick husband. If Paige herself gets a serious medical condition, which of the following is true?
o Paige's employer can choose not to fire her even if she takes more leave time off.
o Paige is out of FMLA leave and has no recourse.
o More than one response is correct.
o Paige is entitled to 12 weeks of FMLA leave for herself.


o

ETH321T Week 4 Apply Assignment SCORE 95 PERCENT (2020)

1. Bookmark question for later
For the scenario, determine if the party is guilty and what is "at play" related to agreement between parties.
Tyson gets his employees to sign an employment agreement which has extra contract obligations hidden in small, almost invisible type.
o Guilty - Fraud in the execution
o Not Guilty
o Guilty - Undue influence
o Guilty - Duress

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2. Bookmark question for later
Read the scenario and determine what needs to take place based on the resolutions described in the text.
Penn contracts with Lisa to do a landscape architecture project on Lisa's property. Before the contract starts, a local city ordinance is instituted which severely limits citizens' ability to plant certain types and numbers of plants in order to conserve water. Penn and Lisa now need to institute a(n) __________.
o Force majeure renovation
o Novation
o Substitution
o Accord and satisfaction

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3. Bookmark question for later
Based on the details of the scenario, determine what will most likely occur.
Jillian and Chase are making a contract in which Jillian ships beaver pelts to Chase, who then makes the pelts into hats to sell. A year into their contract, it becomes illegal to buy or sell beaver pelts in the U.S.
o Contract will be modified
o Contract is valid
o Contract is voided, subject to investigation
o Contract is voided

o
4. Bookmark question for later
Read the scenario and determine what needs to take place based on the resolutions described in the text.
Kyle has already contracted with Vick on a construction project. After some disagreement on materials, location, and deadlines, they decide that the original contract is no longer valid. Kyle and Vick now need a(n) __________.
o Novation
o Accord and satisfaction
o Substitution
o Force majeure renovation

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5. Bookmark question for later
Tanner has too much work to do to fulfill his contract obligations to Fin. He tells his employee Lil to take care of his duties instead. Determine the status of each person.
o Tanner: Delagatee; Lil: Delegator; Fin: Obligee
o Tanner: Obligee; Lil: Delagatee; Fin: Beneficiary
o Tanner: Beneficiary; Lil: Delagatee; Fin: Obligee
o Tanner: Delegator; Lil: Delagatee; Fin: Obligee

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6. Bookmark question for later
Based on the details of the scenario, determine what will most likely occur.
Stewie, aged 16, has a contract with his guardian to do chores as payment for his food and housing. Stewie decides the contract is unfair and stops doing his chores.
o Contract will be modified
o Contract is voided
o Contract is valid
o Contract is voided, subject to investigation

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7. Bookmark question for later
For the scenario, determine if the party is guilty and what is "at play" related to agreement between parties.
Lucy agrees over the phone with Daryl to sell him "the pretty necklace in the window" in Lucy's pawn shop. Lucy sends Daryl the wrong necklace from a different window.
o Guilty - Fraud in the execution
o Guilty - Duress
o Guilty - Undue influence
o Not Guilty

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8. Bookmark question for later
For the scenario, determine if the party is guilty and what is "at play" related to agreement between parties.
Rusty is a landlord over the apartment Pierre lives in. Pierre is unable to make rent payments, so Rusty makes Pierre do renovation labor on the apartments every day for 6 hours as payment instead. He also makes Pierre sign a contract that he will not move until he catches up to his late payments.
o Not Guilty
o Guilty - Undue influence
o Guilty - Duress
o Guilty - Fraud in the execution

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9. Bookmark question for later
Match the status/existence of a contract with the scenario.
Larry posts on the internet that he is offering in-home interior design consultations and that interested customers should schedule an appointment and pay a consultation fee on his website. Brenda sends in a letter with a payment and a scheduled time for Larry to go to her house for a consultation. Which of the following is most likely true?
o Contract created
o Contract not created
o Insufficient information to determine

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10. Bookmark question for later
Which of the following would not qualify as valid consideration?
o Laura buys $100 worth of clothes from Martha on credit.
o Bill rents an apartment from his landlord.
o Spencer and Linda sign a contract where Linda buys all her lumber from Spencer and Spencer sells as much lumber to Linda each week as he wants.
o Marcy pays Jim a dollar for every bag of tin cans he picks up for recycling.

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11. Bookmark question for later
Based on the details of the scenario, determine what will most likely occur.
Melinda has a contract to pay 13% interest on a personal loan for 5 years. She decides the rate is unfair and files a complaint in court.
o Contract is voided
o Contract is voided, subject to investigation
o Contract will be modified
o Contract is valid

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12. Bookmark question for later
Read the scenario and determine what needs to take place based on the resolutions described in the text.
Sue has contracted with Rick to do a landscaping project on her property when she sells the whole property to Sylvia. Sylvia decides she will continue to have Rick do the landscaping project. The parties now need a(n) __________.
o Novation
o Force majeure renovation
o Substitution
o Accord and satisfaction

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13. Bookmark question for later
Demonstrate your knowledge of the different types of remedy for breached contracts by filling in the blank.
When a breach of contract results in no tangible harm to a non-breaching party, it can receive __________  damages from the breaching party.
o Punitive
o Compensatory
o Consequential
o Nominal

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14. Bookmark question for later
What is the most likely status of the contract for the scenario?
Jena is contracting with Brigham to purchase his car. Before the sale, a tree falls on Brigham's car, ruining it. The contract is most likely:
o Void
o Enforceable
o Voidable

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15. Bookmark question for later
For the scenario, determine if the party is guilty and what is "at play" related to agreement between parties.
Joy threatens Winston at knifepoint to sign a prenuptial agreement until he complies.
o Guilty - Fraud in the execution
o Not Guilty
o Guilty - Undue influence
o Guilty - Undue influence

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16. Bookmark question for later
Based on the scenario, what is the classification of the tenancy?
Lionel had a rental agreement with Kris for Kris to lease storefront space for 5 years. 5 years has passed, but Kris still uses the space and pays Lionel rent. Kris's tenancy is best classified as:
o Periodic tenancy
o Tenancy at sufferance(Incorrect)
o Tenancy for years
o Tenancy at will

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17. Bookmark question for later
Which of the following shows the correct answer for examples of arbitrary trademarks?
o Target, a retail store: Non-Example; Band-aid, a bandage manufacture: Example
o Target, a retail store: Non-Example; Band-aid, a bandage manufacture: Non-Example
o Target, a retail store: Example; Band-aid, a bandage manufacture: Example
o Target, a retail store: Example; Band-aid, a bandage manufacture: Non-Example
o
18. Bookmark question for later
Determine the ownership status for the scenario below.
Phyllis offers property to a university on condition that the space is used for recreational use only. Ten years later, the university builds a math lab on the property. Phyllis does not repossess the property. Ownership of the property up to this point has been:
o Fee simple subject to a condition subsequent
o Fee simple absolute
o Fee simple determinable
o Indeterminable with the given information

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19. Bookmark question for later
Does the following pass the "test" of utility?
A prototype for a drone that can dig soil.
o Does not pass test
o Passes test

o
20. Bookmark question for later
Examine the scenarios to determine the protected status, unprotected status, existence, or non-existence of a trade secret.
Lenny, an Italian chef, has his son Giovanni plant a camera in the kitchen of competitor in order to learn the competitor's secret recipe.
o Trade secret is protected
o Answer dependent on additional details not provided
o Trade secret may be used by others
o Trade secret exists
o Trade secret does not exist (Incorrect)

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21. Bookmark question for later
Examine the scenarios to determine the protected status, unprotected status, existence, or non-existence of a trade secret.
Orlando works for a manufacturing company in its research and development division. After years of research and testing, Orlando finally discovers the secret to a competitor's efficient manufacturing process.
o Trade secret does not exist
o Answer dependent on additional details not provided
o Trade secret is protected
o Trade secret exists
o Trade secret may be used by others

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22. Bookmark question for later
Does the following pass the "test" of novelty?
A design for a plate that turns into a bowl.
o Does not pass test
o Passes test

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23. Bookmark question for later
Which of the following would most likely be considered fair use?
o Making photocopies of an artist's canvas and selling them
o Copying the blueprints for a stylish building to be used for building your own replica.
o Copying a poem by an amateur poet and publishing it as your own in a poetry contest.
o Showing a clip of a new movie to draw audiences to come watch the movie in theatres
o
24. Bookmark question for later
Does the following pass the "test" of novelty?
A design for a chair that folds.
o Passes test
o Does not pass test

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25. Bookmark question for later
Does the following pass the "test" of non-obviousness?
A machine that folds shirty perfectly.
o Does not pass test
o Passes test

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26. Bookmark question for later
Examine the scenarios to determine the protected status, unprotected status, existence, or non-existence of a trade secret.
Jake's company uses a unique ergonomics and organization system to help employees work more efficiently. The company wants Jake to sign a non-disclosure agreement not to expose the system.
o Answer dependent on additional details not provided
o Trade secret is protected
o Trade secret exists
o Trade secret may be used by others
o Trade secret does not exist

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27. Bookmark question for later
Determine the ownership status for the scenario below.
Victoria has been paying a mortgage on her property for the past 30 years. When Victoria pays the last payment on her mortgage, her ownership interest in the property will be:
o Fee simple absolute
o Fee simple subject to a condition subsequent
o Indeterminable with the given information
o Fee simple determinable

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28. Bookmark question for later
Which of the following shows the correct answer for examples of suggestive trademarks?
o Hot Wheels, a brand of toy cars: Example; Lenovo, a computer manufacturer: Example
o Hot Wheels, a brand of toy cars: Non-Example; Lenovo, a computer manufacturer: Example
o Hot Wheels, a brand of toy cars: Non-Example; Lenovo, a computer manufacturer: Non-Example
o Hot Wheels, a brand of toy cars: Example; Lenovo, a computer manufacturer: Non-Example
o
29. Bookmark question for later
Based on the scenario, what is the classification of the tenancy?
Darla moves into one of Bret's spare rental units while Bret is away on vacation. Bret doesn't even notice Darla's presence until several months later. Darla's tenancy is best classified as:
o Tenancy at will
o Tenancy at sufferance
o Periodic tenancy
o Tenancy for years

o
30. Bookmark question for later
Determine the type of property involved for each example.
Cecil leaves his jacket on a bench in the park. He never goes back to look for it. The jacket is:
o Mislaid Property
o Abandoned Property
o Gift or Inheritance

ETH321T Week 4 Practice Assignment (2020)

ETH 321
Week 4 Practice Assignment
1. What is the correct definition of assignee?
o A person accepting contract duties
o A person accepting contract rights
o A person making a contract assignment
o A person transferring contract duties

2. Which of the following contracts are not required to be in writing?
o A contract between Glinda and her mother for her to not marry her boyfriend Harry.
o A contract for labor intended to finish before one year
o A contract to lease property with a guaranty contract
o A contract to sell real estate, with $800 per month payments

3. Callie wants to work for an insurance firm. Before she is hired, the firm wants her to sign a non-compete agreement that she will not work for any other insurance firm in the state or any surrounding state for the next ten years. Which of the following is most likely true?
o This agreement is legal as long as Callie can find a job at least one year after she quits.
o This agreement is probably too excessive to be enforceable.
o This agreement is legal and enforceable.
o This agreement is illegal and punishable under usury laws.

4. Claire and Donny want to use a contract to enforce a business deal. Which of the following would most solidly enforce to terms of their agreement?
o An informal, implied contract
o An informal, express contract
o A formal, express contract
o A formal, implied contract

5. Stetzon, a merchant, makes an unconscionably unfair deal with another merchant, Cheri. Cheri wants to pursue a remedy when she discovers her disadvantage in the contract. What recourse does Cheri have under UCC?
o Cheri may rewrite the contract, to which Stetzon must comply.
o As a merchant, Cheri has no recourse.
o Cheri may have a court alter the contract.
o Cheri may wholly void the contract.

6. What are punitive damages?
o Damages awarded to cover a foreseeable loss
o Damages awarded to punish gross breaches of contract
o Damages awarded when non-breaching party sues a breaching party
o Damages awarded to return a non-breaching party to its former position

7. What is the correct definition of offeror?
o Offeror's withdrawal
o Offeree's refusal
o Person who receives an offer
o Person who sets the terms of an offer

8. What are compensatory damages?
o Damages awarded to cover a foreseeable loss
o Damages awarded to return a non-breaching party to its former position
o Damages awarded when non-breaching party sues a breaching party
o Damages awarded to punish gross breaches of contract

9. What is the definition of Fraud?
o An intentional misrepresentation of material fact
o A unilateral of bilateral misunderstanding of value or fact
o Pressure exerted on a person to force him or her to perform under serious threat
o Domination of another person so thoroughly as to remove free will

10. Which of the following would most likely qualify as substantial performance?
o Vivian is under contract to paint 10 paintings, but only finished 8 because she is offered a more lucrative contract from someone else.
o Leroy doesn't finish his last 3 days of yard work under contract because his mother has a medical emergency.
o Lily contracts to paint house green, but decides to paint it blue instead.
o Out of spite, Wally stops performing work 10 days before his contract is finished.

11. Lou picks up a desktop mouse he finds lying on a desk at school. The next day Travis recognizes the mouse as the one he left behind the day before but tells Lou he "might as well have it." The mouse is:
o A gift
o Abandoned property
o Mislaid property
o None of the above

12. Which of the following is a definition of novelty?
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward
o How an invention works
o Usefulness of an invention
o Newness of an invention

13. Which of the following would most likely be considered fair use?
o Playing a newly-released movie at a free drive-in movie
o Selling copies of music CDs that you burned yourself.
o Replicating the choreography of a famous dancer for use in your own stage production
o Playing an actor's short film in school and doing a speech review of the work.

14. Perry started a new company called Thixxix, along with a distinctive trademark mark meant to identify the company. Perry doesn't bother to register the trademark. The year following the creation of his company, Perry sees a trademark logo for another company that looks just like the mark for Thixxix. Which of the following is true?
15. Torey broke into a competitor's office to steal a trade secret. She is eventually caught. If she has gained from the use of the trade secret, which of the following is true?
o Torey must stop using the trade secret for her benefit.
o More than one response is correct.
o Torey must give the profits she has made to the competitor.
o Torey will pay her competitor for lost profits.

16. BooneTech has a superior instrumentation system for doing work in its factory. It regularly offers tours so people can come and observe the special equipment. When a competitor begins to use similar equipment, BooneTech sues the competitor for utilizing a trade secret. Which of the following is true?
17. Which of the following is the correct definition of utility?
o Usefulness of an invention
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward
o How an invention works
o Newness of an invention

18. Which of the following is the correct definition of non-obviousness?
o Newness of an invention
o Any process, machine, manufacture, or composition of matter
o Usefulness of an invention
o An invention's characteristic of advancing ideas or stepping forward

19. Jerry wants to rent out living space to a tenant. He wants the benefit of steady rent payments and the ease of evicting the tenant when he feels it would be convenient. Jerry also wants to formalize the tenancy with a rental agreement so that his rights and privileges are explicitly accounted for and agreed to in writing. Which form of tenancy should Jerry use in renting out his space?
o Tenancy at sufferance
o More than one option is correct
o Tenancy at will
o Periodic tenancy

20. A __________ may have an infinite duration.
o Tenancy at will
o Tenancy at sufferance
o More than one option is correct
o Periodic tenancy

Exam 412756RR - Group Insurance

1. What is the term used to describe a situation in which an employee maintains his or her group coverage after employment is terminated?
A. Persistency
B. Comity
C. Underwriting
D. Portability

2. Berk's Manufacturing requires all of its nondisabled employees to retire when they become eligible for Medicare. What law is this company breaking?
A. Mental Health Parity Act
B. Social Security Act
C. Employee Retirement Income Security Act
D. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

3. Categories contained in the benefit schedule under which all employees must be sorted are called
A. eligibility determinations.
B. covered classifications.
C. insurability tiers.
D. general groups.

4. Which of the following statements concerning the traditional form of accidental death and dismemberment coverage is correct?
A. Death benefits are payable only if death occurs within 30 days of an accident.
B. Death benefits are automatically paid to the employee's spouse if an employee is married.
C. Dismemberment benefits are usually paid for occupational accidents only.
D. Coverage usually ceases at retirement even if some or all of the basic group life insurance continues.

5. Which of the following causes of disability would be covered under a typical group short-term disability income contract?
A. Illness that allows for partial employment
B. Self-inflicted injuries
C. Injury eligible for workers' compensation
D. Drug addiction

6. Which of the following is usually integrated with long-term disability income plans?
A. State welfare programs
B. Workers' compensation laws
C. Individual disability income contracts purchased by employees.
D. Cafeteria plans

7. Regarding underwriting considerations, what information may an employer have to provide to an insurance company to show that the company is insurable?
A. The employees' health histories
B. References from customers
C. The firm's total number of employees
D. The employer's financial records

8. The short-term disability benefits from an employer are combined with _______ to make sure that an employee doesn't receive benefits that are more than his or her salary.
A. earnings from employment
B. pension-plan payments
C. sick-leave plans
D. workers' compensation payments

9. Which of the following statements concerning the Pregnancy Discrimination Act is correct?
A. It allows pregnancy benefits to be excluded for female employees who are unmarried.
B. It requires benefits to be provided for elective abortions.
C. It requires that pregnancy-related medical conditions and other medical conditions be treated in the same manner for purposes of extended medical expense benefits after termination of employment.
D. It requires any female dependents of employees who have coverage under a group medical plan to be provided with benefits for pregnancy.

10. If an employee, who has $100,000 in group term life insurance, dies at the age of 67, what amount may be paid to the beneficiaries on his or her death if reductions are taken based on age?

A. $65,000
B. $89,000
C. $35,000
D. $67,000

11.Which of the following statements concerning the federal tax treatment of life insurance proceeds under a group term life insurance contract is correct?
A. The growth of group term insurance has not been affected by federal tax laws.
B. An absolute assignment of all incidents of ownership will remove the proceeds from the insured's estate as long as the assignment is made within three years of death.
C. A spouse can exclude the first $5,000 of interest income from taxation if the proceeds are paid in installments under a settlement option.
D. No tax deduction is allowed if the employer is named as beneficiary of an employee's life insurance coverage.

12. Which of the following statements concerning sick-leave plans is correct?
A. Traditionally, many sick-leave plans were highly regulated.
B. Surveys indicate that about 10% of employees with short-term coverage obtain benefits under sick-leave plans.
C. Most plans require an employee to satisfy a probationary period before becoming eligible for benefits.
D. Most plans are designed to provide benefits equal to no more than 50% of an employee's regular pay.

13. Which of the following statements about the underwriting of group universal life insurance is correct?
A. Underwriting standards are not typically affected by available coverage amounts.
B. Group universal life insurance products are not typically considered for employers with less than 200 employees.
C. Most insurers require 100 percent participation.
D. Increases in the amount of coverage are often subject to evidence of insurability.

14. An employer with fewer than 15 employees might be required to offer medical insurance benefits to a pregnant employee because the
A. employer may be held responsible if the child is born with medical problems.
B. employer provides sick leave for employees.
C. state in which the employer operates requires it.
D. employer offers medical insurance benefits to nonpregnant employees.

15. What's the primary reason for the increase in popularity of voluntary benefits in recent years?
A. State legislation that mandates benefits
B. Employers' attempts to contain the rising costs of employee benefits
C. The federal government's attempt to make medical expense insurance more widely available
D. Guaranteed-issue underwriting for all plans

16. The relationship between an employer and an insured multiple-employer trust is spelled out in which of the following?
A. A certificate of insurance
B. ERISA fiduciary standards
C. The master contract
D. A joinder agreement

17. If an employer has offices in New York, New Jersey, and Los Angeles, how would that employer determine which state regulations govern the group insurance contract?
A. The state with the most employees would govern the contract.
B. The state with the most stringent regulations would govern the contract.
C. The state in which the insurance contract was delivered would govern the contract.
D. Each office would abide by the requirements of its own state.

18. The provisions in disability income contracts concerning termination are the same as those found in group life insurance, with what one notable exception?
A. A conversion privilege is rarely included.
B. The employee can continue coverage by enrolling in an individual plan.
C. The employee can terminate coverage and withdraw cash value.
D. The employee can be directly billed to continue coverage at a higher expense.

19. Bob, a 10-year employee of Company X, is in the Army Reserve. Bob's Reserve unit was called to serve overseas for three months. Company X told Bob that his position would be held for him until he returned. Bob was permanently injured, losing an arm and a foot while fighting overseas. What will happen when he returns?
A. Bob would receive no disability payments.
B. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay after his 30 days of sick leave were used.
C. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X as soon as he returned to the United States.
D. Bob would receive 100 percent of his pay from Company X for the first six months of his disability and 60 percent thereafter.

20. Which of the following statements concerning retired-lives reserves is correct?
A. They must be established and maintained with an insurance company.
B. Investment earnings of the reserve are usually taxed to employees.
C. Their major advantage is the ability to prefund postretirement coverage in excess of $50,000 for all employees on a tax-deductible basis.

D. If properly designed, they will enable an employer to make currently tax-deductible contributions during employees' working years

Exam 412757RR - Group Medical Expense Benefits

Exam: 412757RR - Group Medical Expense Benefits
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Questions 1 to 20:
Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a page break, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.

1. Which of the following statements concerning extended-care facility benefits is correct?
A. Benefits are usually provided only if 24-hour-a-day nursing care is needed.
B. Benefits are not contingent upon a prior hospitalization.
C. Benefits usually are provided for domiciliary care for the aged.
D. Benefits usually are provided for inpatient treatment of drug or alcohol abuse.

2. An HMO that contracts solely with two or more independent groups of physicians to provide medical services to its subscribers is called a
A. mixed-model HMO.
B. group-model HMO.
C. network-model HMO.
D. individual practice association.

3. Which of the following statements about second opinions is correct?
A. If the first and second opinion conflict, the patient must make a decision or pay for a third opinion out of pocket.
B. More plans are requiring mandatory second opinions because it has proven to contain costs.
C. Mandatory provisions often apply only to a specified list of procedures.
D. Voluntary provisions require the insured to accept the final opinion or face financial consequences.

4. Which of the following statements concerning the NAIC Small Employer Health Insurance Availability Model Act is correct?
A. Insurance companies can use the same policies in multiple states.
B. If coverage is made available to employees, it must also be made available to their dependents.
C. All providers of medical expense coverage are required to offer coverage to small employers.
D. Pre-existing conditions provisions are not allowed.

5. The use of health savings accounts and other self-directed medical expense plans typically involve the use of medical expense policies.
A. Blue Cross and Blue Shield
B. self-insured
C. high-deductible
D. traditional

6. When Blue Cross first began, it was in the business of providing coverage for
A. physician care for the financially needy.
B. physician care for the elderly.
C. hospitalization.
D. prescriptions.

7. State reactions to managed care backlash include prohibitions against which of the following?
A. Point-of-service options
B. Direct access to specialists
C. Any-willing-provider laws
D. Provider gag clauses

8. All the following expenses are often subject to internal limitations under major medical policies except
A. diagnostic X-rays and laboratory services.
B. home healthcare benefits.
C. treatment for mental and nervous disorders.
D. hospital room and board.

9. The medical expense insurance-like organizations that eventually came to be called Blue Cross plans were initially run by
A. charity organizations.
B. employers.
C. physicians.
D. hospitals.

10. Jim and Betty are married with one child, and both are employed by the same company. Jim, who was born on February 9, 1968, has been with the company for 10 years. Betty, who was born on May 12, 1965, has been with the company for 8 years. Who is the primary provider of health care coverage for the child?
A. Betty, because she's older than Jim
B. Jim, because of his date of birth
C.Both Betty and Jim, because they have the same insurance
D. Jim, because he's been with the company longer than Betty

11. Mary goes to the doctor and pays for her visit. When she gets home, she must fill out a form and submit it to the insurance company so she can be reimbursed. What type of insurance does she most likely have?
A. HMO
B. The Blues
C. Indemnity
D. POS

12. Which of the following would typically be covered under home healthcare benefits?
A. 24-hour nursing care
B. Prescription drugs
C. Physical therapy
D. Diagnostic testing

13. Which of the following statements concerning the Mental Health Parity Act is correct?
A. It requires employers to make benefits available for mental illness.
B. The provisions of the act only apply to employers with more than 50 employees.
C. It requires alcoholism and drug addiction to be treated like any other mental illness.
D. It prohibits different cost-sharing provisions for mental health benefits and other medical and surgical benefits.

14. Which of the following statements concerning basic medical expense benefits is correct?
A. Hospital expense coverage usually provides coverage for emergency room treatment of accidental injuries at any time following an accident.
B. Surgical expense coverage usually provides benefits for surgery in a hospital only.
C. Hospital expense coverage usually expresses room-and-board benefits as the full cost of semiprivate accommodations.
D. Physicians' visits expense coverage must always include out-of-hospital visits.

15. A benefit that does not try to cure a person's ailments, but rather attempts to make a patient comfortable in his or her last days or weeks before death, is called
A. home health care.
B. terminal care.
C. extended care.
D. hospice.

16. Which of the following statements concerning point-of-service plans is correct?
A. The term point-of-service implies a lesser degree of managed care than is found in most PPOs.
B. They are hybrid arrangements that combine aspects of an HMO with a PPO.
C. A member of a point-of-service plan can never go outside the plan's network without informing the plan.
D. They prohibit treatment outside an exclusive-provider network unless the network does not contain an appropriate specialist.

17. Company X must make sure that it provides HMO coverage as an option in its benefit-selection process. What act would require Company X to do this?
A. Financial Services Modernization Act
B. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
C. Americans with Disabilities Act
D. Health Maintenance Organization Act

18. Which of the following types of medical expense plans has the highest degree of managed care?
A. Point-of-service plans
B. Independent practice association HMOs
C. Closed-panel HMOs
D. Preferred provider organizations

19. A benefit plan that provides a less expensive choice for treatment is often a smart way to reduce costs. An example of this type of plan is
A. implementing maximum benefits.
B. allowing the use of birthing centers.
C. allowing longer hospital stays.
D. requiring higher deductibles.

20. Which of the following statements concerning multiple-option plans is correct?
A. Because the plans are subject to experience rating, costs may be higher.
B. Non-federally qualified HMOs are never used in multiple-option plans.
C. They may allow experience rating of an employer's entire medical expense plan, including HMO coverage.

D. They increase administrative complexity if an employer offers more than one type of medical expense coverage.

Exam 500664RR - International Environmental Forces

1. Market screening is derived from
A. current market trends.
B. environmental scanning.
C. local sociocultural forces.
D. global opportunities and threats.

2. Market screening is divided into
A. segment screening and environmental screening.
B. region screening and segment screening.
C. environmental screening and country screening.
D. country screening and segment screening.

3. _______ is/are economic data that correlate highly with market demand for a product.
A. Market factors
B. Market indicators
C. Trend analysis
D. Cluster analysis

4. After Saudi Arabia, the country with the greatest heavy oil reserves is
A. Iraq.
B. Canada.
C. Iran.
D. Venezuela.

5. Understanding the religious beliefs of foreign markets is
A. useful, because religions affect attitudes and beliefs across cultures.
B. useful because there's always the possibility of conversion.
C. not necessary because religion isn't a part of culture; it's beyond culture.
D. not really necessary because religion is one and the Truth is universal.

6. The two types of market screening procedures are
A. trend analysis and cluster analysis.
B. country screening and segment screening.
C. initial screening and secondary screening.
D. market indicators and market factors.

7. Trade names are protected under
A. the International Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
B. many local laws in most countries, so illegal trademark use is a local issue.
C. national laws in all UN member countries.
D. long-standing convention, but no legal agreements.

8. There are several criteria for segmenting markets. Which of the following are two criteria for segmenting?
A. Small and elusive
B. Large and definable
C. Diverse and accessible
D. Unclassified and unfulfilled

9. The concept of strict liability, as found in the US legal system, applies
A. to harm done by the designer/manufacturer without the need to prove negligence.
B. strictly to harm caused by the designer/manufacturer, so no penalties outside of damages can be awarded.
C. to harm done within narrow limits, considering the design of the product.
D. to children harmed by products in both the United States and the EU.

10. In a personal interview or phone survey, some respondents want to help the interviewer out of politeness or just to please the interviewer. This is known as
A. social desirability bias.
B. interviewer bias.
C. response bias.
D. market research.

11. The International Energy Agency concluded in 2010 that
A. a worldwide energy revolution based on low-carbon technologies is under way.
B. oil demand must immediately drop worldwide by 10 percent.
C. oil reserves would dry up by 2020.
D. sustainable energy development was not feasible.

12. In what order is the country screening process presented in the textbook?
A. Basic needs, economic/financial, political, sociocultural, and competitive
B. Basic needs, competitive, political, economic/financial, and sociocultural
C.Basic needs, sociocultural, economic/financial, political, and competitive
D. Basic needs, political, economic/financial, competitive, and sociocultural

13. Average growth rate in commercial energy use and real growth rate in GDP compose the _______ index.
A. e-commerce readiness
B. market size
C. market factor
D. market growth rate

14. Hiring and promoting employees on the basis of the specific local context in which the subsidiary operates is a/an _______ orientation.
A. polycentric
B. regiocentric
C. ethnocentric
D. geocentric

15. Hong Kong is seen as a more desirable location for foreign firms than Shanghai because
A. Hong Kong has a tradition of law adopted from British colonialism.
B. the Chinese government has given Hong Kong dispensation to act as a sovereign nation.
C. Shanghai's main language is Mandarin, while Hong Kong's is Cantonese.
D. Hong Kong remains a British colony.

16. Payments made to expatriates to compensate for extra costs of living abroad are called
A. differentials.
B. bonuses.
C. allowances.
D. premiums.

17. Enforcing contracts that cross international borders is
A. the responsibility of Interpol.
B. secondary to who has possession of the goods, regardless of title.
C. quite complicated and governed in most nations by the CISG.
D. simply a matter of applying the local law to the contract.

18. Patent trolling is the process of
A. looking for loopholes in patent protection and exploiting them.
B. legal research that uncovers obscure, deceased patent holders and liberates their inventions.
C. searching out patents that have expired and negotiating their replacements.
D. recording and registering patents in foreign countries to protect the firm's IP.

19. When host-country nationals are employed
A. they're already familiar with the home country.
B. they're familiar with local customs, culture, and language.
C. training costs are a minimum.
D. any conflict of interest is removed.


20. In _______ screening, the important variables for segmentation are commonalities in needs and wants among consumers across nationalities.
A. country
B. product
C. segment

D. cultural

C08 American Government Presidential Emergency Powers

Background

Throughout American history, presidents have faced emergencies that would require swift and decisive action. While the founding fathers gave the executive branch wide-ranging power and flexibility in running the executive branch, no specific emergency powers were listed in the Constitution. Any emergency power granted to the president would be implied in the Constitution rather than specifically expressed. As a result of this, Congress has been called upon to grant emergency powers to presidents throughout US history. In other times of emergency, presidents would use executive orders to respond to crisis. In this paper, you'll explore these powers, their constitutionality, and your opinion on these powers.

Assignment Instructions

With this project you'll answer some essential questions around the main topic question:

Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency? If so, what should be the limits on such powers?

You should use research to form your opinions and support your arguments. The paper should address the central question and include the topics provided to help you organize and present the information. This project will be four to six pages in total.

Topics

Try to address each topic or set of questions directly and as thoroughly as possible.

National Emergencies Act (approximately 1-1.5 pages) Research the National Emergencies Act (1976) and answer the following:

• What is the National Emergencies Act of 1976 and what powers does it grant to the president?
• What criteria are set up for when and why a president could declare a national emergency?
• Research and provide information on a time in the past 10 years when this act has been used by a president to declare an emergency. Provide information on how this move was viewed by the major political parties (Republican and Democrat) at the time the emergency was declared.

Historical Emergencies (approximately 1-1.5 pages): Pick and research three times in American history when a president used power outside of his usual constitutional powers to address a crisis and complete the following in two pages:

• Describe the crisis and the action taken by the president to address that crisis.
• Did the president in each of these situations face pushback from Congress or the public? Describe the nature of that opposition.

Constitutionality of presidential emergency actions (approximately 1-1.5 pages): Choose two times in American history when a president used powers in an emergency and the Supreme Court weighed in on the constitutionality of the president's actions. Pick one in which the Supreme Court upheld emergency actions and one in which it struck down a president's actions.

• Describe the emergency action taken by the president, the court case that challenged it, and the result of that case. Include the reasoning provided by the justices in making their decisions.

Your opinion/thesis: Based on what you've researched, answer the question:

• Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency? If so, what should be the limits on such powers?
• Use expert opinions and historical examples to support your arguments.

   Should the president have extra powers in a time of emergency?