MA260 Lesson 8 Esam SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1        5 / 5 points
The following data were analyzed using one-way analysis of variance.
 
A    B    C
34    27    19
26    23    31
31    29    22
28    21    22

 
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Question options:

a)     The purpose of the analysis is to determine whether the groups A, B, and C are independent.


b)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the population means of the three groups are equal.


c)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the population variances of the three groups are equal.


d)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the sample means of the three groups are equal.

Question 2        5 / 5 points
A golfer wished to find a ball that would travel more than 170 yards when hit with his 6-iron with a club head speed of 90 miles per hour. He had a golf equipment lab test a low-compression ball by having a robot swing his club 12 times at the required speed. State the null and alternative hypotheses for this test.
Question options:

a)     H0:  µ > 170; Ha:  µ = 170


b)     H0:  µ < 170; Ha:  µ = 170


c)     H0:  µ = 170; Ha:  µ > 170


d)     H0:  µ = 160; Ha:  µ > 160

Question 3        3 / 5 points
State the null and alternative hypothesis for the test associated with testing whether colorblindness and gender are dependent characteristics.
Question options:

a)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are dependent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender aren't related in any way.


b)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are dependent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender are related in some way.


c)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are independent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender aren't related in any way.


d)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are independent characteristics.
      Ha:  Colorblindness and gender are related in some way.

Question 4        5 / 5 points
A golfer wished to find a ball that would travel more than 160 yards when hit with his 7-iron with a club speed of 90 miles per hour. He had a golf equipment lab test a low-compression ball by having a robot swing his club 8 times at the required speed. State the null and alternative hypotheses for this test.
Question options:

a)     H0:  µ = 160; Ha:  µ > 150


b)     H0:  µ = 150; Ha:  µ > 150


c)     H0:  µ = 160; Ha:  µ > 160


d)     H0:  µ = 140; Ha:  µ > 160

Question 5        5 / 5 points
One hundred people are selected at random and tested for colorblindness to determine whether gender and colorblindness are independent. The following counts were observed.
 
     Colorblind    Not Colorblind    Total
Male     8    52     60
Female     2    38     40
Total    10    90    100

 
Find the value of the χ2 statistic for the data.
Question options:

a)     1.463


b)     1.852


c)     1.947


d)     1.949

Question 6        5 / 5 points
One hundred people are selected at random and tested for colorblindness to determine whether gender and colorblindness are independent. The following counts were observed.
 
     Colorblind    Not Colorblind    Total
Male    7    53     60
Female    1    39     40
Total    8    92    100

 
Find the value of the χ2 statistic for the chart data.
Question options:

a)     1.325


b)     1.318


c)     1.286


d)     1.264

Question 7        5 / 5 points
A 95% confidence interval for the mean of a normal population is found to be 13.2 < µ < 22.4. What is the margin of error?
Question options:

a)     4.6


b)     4.4


c)     4.2


d)     5.6

Question 8        5 / 5 points
The following data were analyzed using one-way analysis of variance.
 
A    B    C
24    27    19
26    23    31
31    29    27
28    31    22

 
Which one of the following statements is correct?
Question options:

a)     The purpose of the analysis is to determine whether the groups A, B, and C are independent.


b)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the population means of the three groups are equal.


c)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the population variances of the three groups are equal.


d)     The purpose of the analysis is to test the hypothesis that the sample means of the three groups are equal.

Question 9        5 / 5 points
A golfer wished to find a ball that would travel more than 180 yards when hit with his 5-iron with a club speed of 90 miles per hour. He had a golf equipment lab test a low-compression ball by having a robot swing his club 7 times at the required speed. State the null and alternative hypotheses for this test.
Question options:

a)     H0:  µ = 180; Ha:  µ > 180


b)     H0:  µ > 180; Ha:  µ > 180


c)     H0:  µ < 180; Ha:  µ > 180


d)     H0:  µ = 180; Ha:  µ < 180

Question 10        5 / 5 points
A 95% confidence interval for the mean of a normal population is found to be 17.6 < µ < 23.6. What is the margin of error?
Question options:

a)     2.0


b)     2.7


c)     3.0


d)     4.0

Question 11        5 / 5 points
Which of the following statements is true?
Question options:

a)     The p distribution can't be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean with a small sample anytime the population standard deviation is unknown.


b)     The t distribution can be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean with a small sample anytime the population standard deviation is unknown.


c)     The t distribution can't be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean with a small sample anytime the population standard deviation is unknown.


d)     The p distribution can be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean with a small sample anytime the population standard deviation is unknown.

Question 12        5 / 5 points
One hundred people are selected at random and tested for colorblindness to determine whether gender and colorblindness are independent. The following counts were observed.
 
     Colorblind    Not Colorblind    Total
Male     8    52     60
Female     2    38     40
Total    10    90    100

 
If gender and colorblindness are independent, find the expected frequencies of colorblindness and non-colorblindness among 60 males. (Note: To answer this question, it may help to create your own 2 X 2 table of expected frequencies, based on the data for the random sample.)
Question options:

a)     Male Colorblind 6.0; Male Not Colorblind 54.0


b)     Male Colorblind 7.0; Male Not Colorblind 53.0


c)     Male Colorblind 8.0; Male Not Colorblind 52.0


d)     Male Colorblind 6.0; Male Not Colorblind 53.0

Question 13        5 / 5 points
One hundred people are selected at random and tested for colorblindness to determine whether gender and colorblindness are independent. The following counts were observed.

 
     Colorblind    Not Colorblind    Total
Male    7    53    60
Female    1    39    40
Total    8    92    100

 
If gender and colorblindness are independent, find the expected values corresponding to the female combinations of gender and colorblindness.
Question options:

a)     Colorblind Female 4.8; Not Colorblind Female 55.2


b)     Colorblind Female 3.2; Not Colorblind Female 36.8


c)     Colorblind Female 4.8; Not Colorblind Female 35.2


d)     Colorblind Female 3.8; Not Colorblind Female 36.2

Question 14        5 / 5 points
The critical value of χ2 for a 2 x 2 table using a 0.05 significance level is 3.841. If the value of the χ2 statistic in a test for the dependence of colorblindness on gender had been 4.613, state your conclusion about the relationship between gender and colorblindness.
Question options:

a)     Reject H0. There's not sufficient evidence to support the claim that gender and colorblindness are related.


b)     Reject H0. There's sufficient evidence to support the claim that gender and colorblindness are related.


c)     Don't Reject H0. There's sufficient evidence to support the claim that gender and colorblindness are related.


d)     Don't Reject H0. There's not sufficient evidence to support the claim that gender and colorblindness are related.

Question 15        5 / 5 points
State the null and alternative hypothesis for the testing whether colorblindness and gender are related.
Question options:

a)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are dependent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender are related in some way.


b)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are independent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender aren't related in any way.


c)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are dependent characteristics.
    Ha:  Colorblindness and gender aren't related in any way.


d)     H0:  Colorblindness and gender are independent characteristics.
      Ha:  Colorblindness and gender are related in some way.

Question 16        5 / 5 points
A large test statistic F tells us that the sample means _______ the data within the individual samples, which would be unlikely if the populations means really were equal (as the null hypothesis claims).
Question options:

a)     differ more than


b)     differ less than


c)     are equal to


d)     don't vary with

Question 17        5 / 5 points
The margin of error in estimating the population mean of a normal population is E = 9.3 when the sample size is 15. If the sample size had been 18 and the sample standard deviation didn't change, would the margin of error be larger or smaller than 9.3? Explain your answer.
Question options:

a)     Smaller. E decreases as the square root of the sample size gets larger.


b)     Smaller. E increases as the square root of the sample size gets larger.


c)     Larger. E decreases as the square root of the sample size gets larger.


d)     Larger. E increases as the square root of the sample size gets larger.

Question 18        0 / 5 points
Data from 8 robot swings of a 7-iron at 90 miles per hour resulted in a sample mean of 163.2 yards with a sample standard deviation of 5.8 yards. Assuming normality, carry out a hypothesis test at the 0.05 significance level to determine whether the ball meets the golfer's required average of more than 160 yards per swing.  Use the partial t-table below to solve this problem.
 
     Area in one tail
     0.025    0.05
     Area in two tails
Degrees ofFreedom    n - 1    0.05    0.10
     6    2.447    1.943
     7    2.365    1.895
     8    2.306    1.860
     9    2.262    1.833
    10    2.228    1.812
    11    2.201    1.796
    12    2.179    1.782

 
Question options:

a)     Don't reject the null hypothesis. The data don't provide sufficient evidence that the average distance is greater than 160 yards.


b)     Reject the null hypothesis. The data does provide sufficient evidence that the average distance is greater than 160 yards.


c)     t = 1.2334; Critical value = 1.992


d)     There's insufficient information to answer this question.

Question 19        5 / 5 points
One hundred people are selected at random and tested for colorblindness to determine whether gender and colorblindness are independent. The following counts were observed.
 
     Colorblind    Not Colorblind    Total
Male    7    53     60
Female    1    39     40
Total    8    92    100

 
If gender and colorblindness are independent, find the expected values corresponding to the male combinations of gender and colorblindness.
Question options:

a)     Colorblind Male 4.8; Not Colorblind Male 55.2


b)     Colorblind Male 6.8; Not Colorblind Male 53.2


c)     Colorblind Male 4.8; Not Colorblind Male 55.4


d)     Colorblind Male 4.8; Not Colorblind Male 56.2

Question 20        5 / 5 points
Which of the following statements is true?
Question options:

a)     The t distribution can be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean whenever the sample size is small.


b)     The p distribution can be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean whenever the sample size is small.


c)     The t distribution can't be used when finding a confidence interval for the population mean whenever the sample size is small.


d)     The p distribution can't be used when finding a confidence interval for the sample mean whenever the sample size is small.

MA260 Assignment 08 2018

[08] Assignment 8 Assignment   Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home Page for specific format requirements. NOTE: Show your work in the problems. 1. In the following situations, indicate whether you'd use the normal distribution, the tdistribution, or neither. a. The population is normally distributed, and you know the population standard deviation. b. You don't know the population standard deviation, and the sample size is 35. c. The sample size is 22, and the population is normally distributed. d. The sample size is 12, and the population is not normally distributed. e. The sample size is 45, and you know the population standard deviation. 2. The prices of used books at a large college bookstore are normally distributed. If a sample of 23 used books from this store has a mean price of $27.50 with a standard deviation of $6.75, use Table 10.1 in your textbook to calculate the following for a 95% confidence level about the population mean. Be sure to show your work. a. Degrees of freedom b. The critical value of t c. The margin of error d. The confidence interval for a 95% confidence level 3. Statistics students at a state college compiled the following two-way table from a sample of randomly selected students at their college:  Play chess Don't play chess Male students 25 162 Female students 19 148 Answer the following questions about the table. Be sure to show any calculations. a. How many students in total were surveyed? b. How many of the students surveyed play chess?  c. What question about the population of students at the state college would this table attempt to answer? d. State Hº  and Hª for the test related to this table. 4. Answer the following questions about an ANOVA analysis involving three samples. a. In this ANOVA analysis, what are we trying to determine about the three populations they're taken from? b. State the null and alternate hypotheses for a three-sample ANOVA analysis.  c. What sample statistics must be known to conduct an ANOVA analysis? d. In an ANOVA test, what does an F test statistic lower than its critical value tell us about the three populations we're examining?

 

 

MA260 Assignment 04 2018

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home Page for specific format requirements.

NOTE: Show your work in the problems.

1. In families with four children, you're interested in the probabilities for the different possible numbers of girls in a family. Using theoretical probability (assume girls and boys are equally likely), compile a five-column table with the headings "0" through "4," for the five possible numbers of girl children in a four-child family. Then, using "G" for girls and "B" for boys, list under each heading the various birth-order ways of achieving that number of girls in a family.

Then, use your table to calculate the following probabilities:

a. The probability of 1 girl
b. The probability of 2 girls 
c. The probability of 4 girls
d. The probability the third child born is a girl

2. As pictured in Figure 6.11 of your textbook, a roulette wheel has 38 numbers: 18 odd black numbers from 1 to 35, 18 even red numbers from 2 to 36, and the two green numbers 0 and 00. Using theoretical probability, calculate the following:

a. The probability of spinning a green number
b. The probability of spinning a number greater than 30
c. The probability of spinning a red number less than 10
d. The probability of spinning an even black number
e. The expected total of green numbers in 57,000 spins

3. In a nationwide polls of 1,500 randomly selected U.S. residents, 77% said that they liked pizza. In a poll of 1,500 randomly selected U.S. residents one month later, 75% responded that they liked pizza.

a. Does the polling evidence support the claim that pizza declined in popularity over the month between polls? Explain why or why not.
b. Using statistical terminology, precisely identify the population parameter the two polls were attempting to measure. How does a parameter differ from a statistic?
c. Based on the two polls, what would you say to someone who guessed that the population parameter the polls are trying to measure is really only 50%?

4. Eleven people have eleven different favorite numbers from 2 to 12. They all agree to participate in a 10,000-roll dice game where they bet $1 on their favorite number for each roll of two standard (fair) dice. A donor kicks in an extra dollar every round, so the payoff if your number comes up is $12.

a. Assuming everyone bets on all 10,000 rounds, what is the expected value for a person who has number 7? (Show your calculations.)
b. Assuming everyone bets on all 10,000 rounds, what is the expected value for a person who has number 2? (Show your calculations.)

Exam 500476 Manage Conflict..........HR

1.   Marianna tends to take a lot of time to manage conflict between her employees, focusing a on a win-win solution that satisfies both parties. Her style of management conflict would be referred to as
    
  A. collaboration.

  B. interdependence.

  C. accommodation.

  D. competition.


2.   Enrique is fascinated by the idea of _______ leadership, which is broadly distributed among members of a group, organization, or society.
    
  A. authentic

  B. value-based

  C. shared

  D. collaborative



3.   Which of the following orientations concerning ethical leadership involves temperance, humility, and a balanced approach to issues?
    
  A. Sustainability

  B. Humane

  C. Moderation
  D. Justice

4.   Reviewing the results of the Ohio State University study on leadership behavior, Alessandra discovers that the term consideration refers to
    
  A. a strong sense of personal identity.

  B. the extent to which the leader is concerned with the welfare of the group.

  C. a capacity to absorb stress.

  D. the exercise of initiative in social situations.


 
 
5.   According to Bernard Bass, a/an _______ leader concentrates on arousing or altering the needs of subordinates, rather than focusing on how their current needs might be met.
    
  A. values-based

  B. transactional

  C. transformational

  D. inspirational


6.   According to James MacGregor Burns, a central value in the relationship between leaders and followers is
    
  A. purpose.

  B. power.

  C. potential.

  D. purity.


 
7.   The term _______ refers to finding an acceptable solution to conflict that all parties can minimally accept.
    
  A. enforcing

  B. compromising

  C. satisficing

  D. bargaining




8.   The second phase of the negotiation process typically involves
    
  A. bargaining.

  B. preparation.

  C. disagreement.

  D. presentation.


9.   One of the characteristics of creative leadership is _______, which is considered a prerequisite of creativity, innovation, and forward-thinking action.
    
  A. optimism

  B. collaboration

  C. audacity

  D. courage


10.   One of the ways leaders establish and maintain credibility is through "practicing what they preach." Kouzes and Posner describe this "practice" of credibility as
    
  A. modeling the way.

  B. stepping into the unknown.

  C. inspiring a shared vision.

  D. integrity matching.


 
11.   Roxanne recognizes that by establishing rules that limit contact between two employees who are in conflict, she can implement a quick, short-term _______ approach to managing the conflict.
    
  A. avoidance

  B. behavioral

  C. accommodating

  D. attitudinal


12.   _______ can be a source of organizational conflict in the case of workers in different shifts disagreeing about work procedures, documentation, and organization of the workspace they share.
    
  A. Interdependence

  B. Goal incompatibility

  C. Resource allocation

  D. Resource scarcity


 
13.   Creative leaders needs to display _______, which may be described as a capacity to learn from their experiences, engage in self-reflection and self-critique, and apply their learning to future problems.
    
  A. energy

  B. humility

  C. learning agility

  D. empathy



14.   Leadership has occurred when
    
  A. followers disobey new rules and objectives handed down from top management.

  B. someone tries to exert power or control over followers.

  C. a group has been stimulated to move in a new direction.

  D. somebody takes charge and decides what to do.


15.   _______ is a process in which people disagree over significant issues, therefore creating friction.
    
  A. Conflict

  B. Competition

  C. Contrast

  D. Interdependence


 
16.   After studying the biographies of several world leaders, Saul realizes that a potential leader must understand a group and find ways to _______ it.
    
  A. manipulate

  B. control

  C. command

  D. energize



17.   According to Burns, the difference between power and leadership is that power serves the interests of the power wielder, whereas leadership serves
    
  A. the interest of the leader.

  B. the interests of the powerless.

  C. the interests of the followers.

  D. both the leader's interests and those of the follower.


18.   _______ is a process whereby two or more parties reach a mutually agreeable arrangement.
    
  A. Interdependence

  B. Negotiation

  C. Competition

  D. Conflict


19.   The contingency approach to leadership assumes that
    
  A. different situations require different styles of leadership.

  B. a leader's behavior is more important than his or her traits.

  C. a leader's traits are more important than behavior.

  D. courage and creativity are the most important competencies of leadership.


 
20.   According to Bernard Bass, the _______ leader exchanges rewards for services rendered so as to improve subordinates' job performance.
    
  A. compensatory

  B. performance-oriented

  C. rewards-oriented

  D. transactional

Exam 500472RR - Organizational Behavior and Individual...(HR)

Exam: 500472RR - Organizational Behavior and Individual Characteristics

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Questions 1 to 20: Select the best answer to each question. Note that a question and its answers may be split across a pagebreak, so be sure that you have seen the entire question and all the answers before choosing an answer.

1. _______ refers to companies going beyond their bottom line and economic interests to engage inactivities that promote social well-being and environmental sustainability.
A. Organizational behavior
B. Sustainability
C. Globalization
D. Corporate social responsibility

2. Which of the following is not typically considered among the levels of analysis in the field oforganizational behavior?
A. Medium-sized groups
B. Large groups
C. Small groups
D. Individual

3. Lisa's ability to recognize her moods, emotions, drives, and their effect on others represents a highdegree of
A. self-worth.
B. social awareness.
C. cognitive skill.
D. self-awareness.

4. Personal integrity, cultural mindset, and global sustainability are all key elements of
A. the ethical environment.
B. liquid modernity.
C. transactional values.
D. diversity awareness.

5. An important step in developing self-awareness is _______, through which we develop a personalnarrative about who we are, what we value, what we stand for, and what our personal mission is.
A. decision making
B. self-disclosure
C. reflection
D. learning from experience
6. According to a 2013 report by the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, women make up 47 percent of theworkforce, but only _______ percent hold leadership positions.
A. 4
B. 10
C. 15.2
D. 3

7. According to the MBTI, _______ tend to be pragmatic, independent, and even-tempered.
A. rationals
B. artisans
C. idealists
D. guardians

8. A leader's role in shaping organizational culture involves several functions, including
A. maintaining hierarchy, making impersonal decisions, and preserving top-down structure.
B. identifying problems, taking corrective actions, staying up-to-date on activities.
C. role modeling, hiring decisions, and strategy and structure.
D. setting objectives, organizing tasks, and developing employees.

9. Which of Hofstede's cultural dimensions describes the extent to which assertiveness and independencefrom others is valued?
A. Uncertainty avoidance
B. Power distance
C. Individualism
D. Masculinity

10. While studying the Big Five dimensions of personality, Liza discovers that _______ is most stronglycorrelated with job performance.
A. agreeableness
B. emotional stability
C. introversion
D. conscientiousness

11. While examining the cultural dimensions of the GLOBE model, Alicia learns that countries with a high_______ value fairness, kindness, generosity, and caring.
A. humane orientation
B. gender egalitarianism
C. power distance
D. in-group collectivism

12. Logical thinking, decision making, creativity, and reasoning are all important _______ skills relevant tomangers.
A. interpersonal
B. conceptual
C. technical
D. theoretical

13. Which of the following is not one of the levels of culture?
A. Group
B. Ritual
C. National
D. Organizational

14. Upon assuming his new managerial post in the marketing research department of a breakfast foodsmanufacturer, Hector becomes responsible for performing liaison functions and integrating the work ofvarious units within the organization. Which managerial role function do these responsibilities involve?
A. Interpretation
B. External awareness
C. Representation
D. Coordination

15. Someone who relies on his or her ability to show empathy and express his or her emotions to win his orher employees' trust and build cohesion is a good example of a _______ leader.
A. socially aware
B. self-managed
C. self-aware
D. socially manipulative

16. In the 2010 IBM Global CEO Study, 60 percent of those interviewed named _______ as the singlemost important attribute for leaders in the next five years.
A. creativity
B. integrity
C. research
D. global thinking

17. The emergence of social media and its impact on local and global affairs represents a dramatic increasein the _______ of today's global society.
A. stability
B. resilience
C. cultural mindset
D. connectedness

18. One of the challenges Michelle discovers in her role as a manager of a large consumer promotionsdepartment is negotiating conflicts between the _______ employees, who value hard work and respect forauthority, and a larger group of _______ employees, who place more value on balancing work and personallife.

A. Baby Boomer, Millennial
B. Baby Buster, Traditionalist
C. Traditionalist, Generation Xer
D. Baby Boomer, Baby Buster

19. Hard work, frugality, patriotism, and the Protestant work ethic reflect the dominant value system of the_______ generation.
A. Traditionalist
B. Millennial
C. Baby Buster
D. Baby Boomer

20. According to Hofstede's cultural dimensions, _______ refers to the extent to which individuals orclosely knit structures, such as the extended family, are the basis for social systems.
A. power distance
B. masculinity
C. uncertainty avoidance
D. individualism

Exam 500323RR Insurance.......FINANCE

1.   Which of the following is true of survival statutes?
    
  A. It preserves the right to bring a lawsuit for personal injuries, no matter what caused the death(s).

  B. It can only be brought by family members who have lost the support of the deceased.

  C. It allows suits to be brought for libel after the death of a defamed person.

  D. It preserves the right to bring a lawsuit only if the death is caused by negligence of the defendant.
2.   Stanley falls into the low-income group. Which of the following healthcare plans can Stanley opt for?
    
  A. Medicaid

  B. Medicare

  C. Mediclaim

  D. Long-term care insurance





3.   Joseph owes $15,000 to Carmel Enterprises, $8,500 to Vulcan Co., $11,000 to David, and $11,500 to Sigma Enterprises. He has not been making payments on these debts for the past 20 months. Which of these creditors can force Joseph into involuntary bankruptcy?
    
  A. Carmel Enterprises and David only

  B. Sigma Enterprises, David and Vulcan Co. only

  C. Carmel Enterprises, Sigma Enterprises, David, and Vulcan Co.

  D. Carmel Enterprises only
4.   The Daubert case involved juriscience, the intersection of law and science, to help the court determine a question of real or
    
  A. causation in fact.

  B. vicarious liability.

  C. duty.

  D. proximate cause.

5.   Sally and Ethel have a falling out. Sally, to cause distress to Ethel and her husband Elmer, posts on the Internet that Elmer is having an affair with a college student, even though Sally knows that what she is saying isn't true. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Ethel has a claim for defamation against Sally.

  B. Sally has a claim for intentional infliction of emotional distress.

  C. Sally has a claim for defamation against Ethel.

  D. Elmer has a claim for defamation against Sally.
6.   Robert goes to the liquor store, pulls out what appears to be a gun, and says, "Give me all your money, or I'll kill you." The clerk gives Robert all the money in the register. As Robert leaves the liquor store, he spots a policeman across the street and begins to run. At that moment, the clerk comes out of the store and shouts to the policeman that he's just been robbed. The policeman tackles Robert and discovers that Robert's gun was actually just a water pistol. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Robert isn't guilty of robbery because he didn't use force to accomplish the theft.

  B. Robert is guilty of robbery because he committed theft.

  C. Robert isn't guilty of robbery because the gun wasn't capable of causing harm.

  D. Robert is guilty of robbery because he used the threat of force to commit a theft.








7.   A/an _______ will provide temporary insurance coverage until the policy is formally accepted.
    
  A. warranty

  B. premium

  C. binder

  D. adhesion contract

8.   Of the groups listed below, only _______ can take advantage of Chapter 13 provisions.
    
  A. partnerships

  B. self-employed people

  C. corporations

  D. educational institutions

9.   John visits Photo-Heaven to have his picture taken. While he is waiting for the photographer in the reception area, he notices one of the chairs has yellow caution tape around it with a sign that says "Broken Chair." John has been looking for a chair just like this one, so he removes the caution tape to sit in the chair and see how it feels. The chair collapses, and John falls to the floor. John goes to the hospital, where the doctor treats him for injuries. If John files suit against Photo-Heaven for negligence, he will most likely lose because
    
  A. he assumed the risk because he knew the chair was broken.

  B. Photo-Heaven didn't owe John a duty.

  C. he didn't suffer a legally recognizable injury.

  D. Photo-Heaven's negligence didn't cause John's injury.
10.   Sally goes through Edith's purse when Edith leaves the room. Edith returns and catches her in the act. Edith can sue for which type of invasion of privacy?
    
  A. Creating a false light

  B. Exploitation

  C. Revelation of confidential records

  D. Intrusion


11.   Tom is a consumer with regular income who's able to pay more than 25% of his debt over the next three years but probably can't pay it all. If he qualifies, the best chapter in bankruptcy for Tom is Chapter
    
  A. 7.

  B. 12.

  C. 13.

  D. 11.



12.   Peter lost control of his car and drove it though his neighbor, Clyde's, fence. If Clyde were to bring a claim against Peter for the damage to the fence, what type of insurance would Peter need to cover the damage?
    
  A. No-fault insurance

  B. Collision insurance

  C. Property damage liability insurance

  D. Homeowner's insurance


 
13.   Joe made an agreement with Auto Insurance Co. not to use his van for commercial business purposes when he purchased auto insurance. Joe had an accident while delivering pizzas for Bigger Pizza, Inc. For which type of violation will Joe not be covered under his insurance?
    
  A. Breach of warranty

  B. Fraudulent concealment

  C. Misrepresentation

  D. Concealment
14.   Terry parks his car outside the restaurant and goes inside to eat. When he returns, his car has been damaged by vandalism. Terry's insurance company will pay for the repairs if Terry has _______ insurance.
    
  A. collision

  B. comprehensive

  C. no-fault

  D. liability




15.   Zeke takes his gun to the mall looking for Fred. Zeke spots Fred, points the gun at Fred, and says, "I'm going to kill you." He does. Zeke is charged with homicide. His defense is that he had no motive to kill Fred. The prosecution admits that it can't prove that Zeke had any motive and that in fact Zeke loves Fred. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Zeke will be convicted of a lesser degree of homicide due to the prosecution's failure to demonstrate motive.

  B. Zeke's state of mind was that of recklessness.

  C. Zeke will be convicted of homicide.

  D. Zeke's motive is a necessary element of any crime.
16.   Victor applies for life insurance. On the application, when asked if he had ever been diagnosed with cancer, he falsely said no. Later Victor died, and the insurance company found out about the previous diagnosis of cancer and refused to pay. What were the most likely grounds?
    
  A. Estoppel

  B. Failure to pay premiums

  C. Misrepresentation

  D. Concealment
17.   Sear Enterprises wants to continue in business, but needs some relief from creditors' claims. Sear Enterprises should consider filing under Chapter _______ of the Bankruptcy Code.
    
  A. 12

  B. 11

  C. 13

  D. 7

18.   Which of the following is true of coinsurance?
    
  A. It allows the insured to pay an extra premium initially in exchange for a guaranteed option to buy more insurance at certain specified times later.

  B. It's a provision under which the insurer and the insured share costs, after the deductible is met, according to aspecific formula.

  C. It's rarely found in property insurance policies.

  D. It excuses the insured from paying premiums if he or she becomes disabled.
19.   Evan gives Zeke $200 to buy tickets for Evan and his girlfriend to attend a rock concert. Instead, Zeke spends the money to purchase video games. Evan finds out and wants to know if Zeke can be charged with a crime. Zeke has committed
    
  A. no crime, but can be sued in civil court.

  B. embezzlement.

  C. robbery.

  D. larceny.


20.   Vernon owns a family-run farming business. He earned $100,000 in the current financial year. He owes $70,000 that he cannot pay. This debt forms a part of his farm expenses to creditors, but he wants to keep the business running. Which type bankruptcy should Vernon file for?
    
  A. Chapter 7 and Chapter 12

  B. Chapter 11 and Chapter 7

  C. Chapter 7 only

  D. Chapter 12

















 


 

Exam 500321RR Sales (2018)

1.   Mark is mentally incompetent and delights in signing documents. Henry persuades Mark to sign numerous promissory notes which he negotiates. Must Mark pay these notes if they have been held by holders in due course?

   A. Mark may not pay these notes since no one could anticipate this happening.
   B. Mark must pay these notes since duress isn't involved.
   C. Mark must pay these notes since there is a fraud in the inducement.
   D. Mark doesn't have to pay these notes since he has a real defen
2.   Carl writes a check for $500, payable to Fred. Fred indorses it over to Sally in exchange for a television set. Sally deposits the check, only to discover that Carl stopped payment on the check. Which of the following statements is true?

   A. The bank must pay $500 to Sally.
   B. Carl must pay $500 to Sally.
   C. Fred must pay $500 to Sally.
   D. No one is obligated to pay anything to Sally.


3.   Electronic _______ is a system in which funds are electronically transferred from a customer's checking account, eliminating the need to process a paper check.
    
  A. check conversion

  B. fund transfer

  C. check transfer

  D. teller system
4.   Personal defenses can be used against
    
  A. a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument, but not a holder.

  B. any party with whom the holder in due course has dealt.

  C. a holder, but not a holder in due course of a negotiable instrument.

  D. natural persons, but not corporations.
5.   Local business activity carried on within state boundaries is known as
    
  A. interstate commerce.

  B. intrastate commerce.

  C. local commerce.

  D. public commerce.
6.   Lulu orders 20 pairs of navy blue pants from Peter for $4,000, with delivery due no later than November 15. On November 15, Peter delivers 20 navy dresses. Lulu may
    
  A. sue for specific performance.

  B. keep the goods and seek adjustment.

  C. sue for breach.

  D. cover the sale.
7.   Jake bought a motorcycle from his neighbor Randy. Randy had owned the motorcycle for his personal use for about two years. The day after the purchase, Jake is seriously injured after the motorcycle suddenly veers off of the highway due to a manufacturing defect. Jake brings a strict liability action against Randy. Jake will most likely lose because the
    
  A. defendant must normally be engaged in the business of selling or otherwise distributing motorcycles.

  B. motorcycle can't have been substantially changed from the time the product was sold to the time of the injury.

  C. plaintiff must incur physical harm by use of the motorcycle.

  D. product must be in a defective condition when the defendant sells it.
8.   Zeke pulls out a knife and tells Bob to write him a check for $500. Bob does so. Zeke takes the check to his bank, properly endorses it, and receives $500 in cash. Bob stops payment on the check. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Bob must pay the check because the bank is a holder in due course.

  B. Bob must pay the check because Zeke was a holder in due course.

  C. Bob need not pay the check because it was obtained illegally.

  D. Bob need not pay the check because the bank is a holder, not a holder in due course.













9.   Which of the following statements is true of the FTC's Telemarketing Sales Rules?
    
  A. A telemarketer is allowed to call a consumer without requiring the consumer's consent.

  B. Calling times are restricted to anytime during business days and holiday weekends.

  C. Telemarketers are excused from disclosing the name of the seller, and what they're selling before they make their pitch.

  D. Telemarketers must state the total cost of the products or services offered and that the sale is final or nonrefundable.


10.   Dennis contracts with Racketware, Inc., a company in France, to purchase 5,000 tennis rackets. The rackets will be shipped by airplane to a warehouse in New Jersey. Dennis and Racketware enter into a contract on November 1, and the contract identified the rackets being purchased. The airplane containing the rackets leaves France on November 2. The documents necessary to claim the rackets are received by Dennis in the mail on November 3. Dennis claimed the goods at the warehouse on November 4. Dennis acquired an insurable interest in the rackets on what date?
    
  A. November 3

  B. November 1

  C. November 2

  D. November 4

11.   If a person obtains property as a result of another's fraud, misrepresentation, mutual mistake, undue influence, or duress, the person is said to hold only
    
  A. voidable rights.

  B. contract rights.

  C. valid rights.

  D. insured rights.
12.   Tom agrees to sell 500 pairs of pants to Sally for $5,000. Tom delivers the pants. Sally hands Tom a check. Tom demands cash and refuses to accept the check. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Sally will be in breach if she doesn't immediately give Tom $5,000 in cash.

  B. Sally is in breach because Tom is permitted to demand cash.

  C. Sally must pay cash but is entitled to a reasonable time to come up with the cash.

  D. Tom is in breach as the UCC gives him no right to demand cash.
13.   To accept a draft, the drawee
    
  A. need only sign the draft across the face of the instrument.

  B. needs to write "accepted" behind the instrument and sign the bank's record.

  C. needs to write "accepted" on a separate piece of paper.

  D. need only sign on a separate piece of paper affixed to the draft.


 
14.   If a drawee refuses to pay the instrument, it is said to be
    
  A. delayed.

  B. defaulted.

  C. detained.

  D. dishonored.



15.   Which of the following is true of destination contracts?
    
  A. Both title and risk of loss pass to the buyer when goods are given to the carrier.

  B. It requires a seller to turn the goods over to a carrier for delivery to the buyer.

  C. The seller bears no responsibility for seeing that the goods reach their destination.

  D. Title and risk of loss pass to the buyer, once the seller tenders goods at a place as per the contract.








16.   A check for which the issuing financial institution is both the drawer and the drawee is called a _______.
    
  A. teller's check

  B. certified check

  C. bank draft

  D. traveler's check
17.   Under the doctrine of _______, the principal consideration is the safety of a product, not the conduct of the manufacturer or supplier of the goods.
    
  A. strict liability

  B. public interest

  C. public policy

  D. negligence
18.   Tom falsely tells Harold that the car Tom is selling has only 30,000 miles on it. In fact, Tom has turned back the odometer and the true mileage is 150,000. Harold purchases the car by giving Tom a check for $3,000. Tom endorses the check to Sally in exchange for a plasma TV. Harold discovers the fraud and stops payment on the check, so it's dishonored when Sally deposits it in her bank account. Sally sues Harold to enforce payment of the check. Which of the following statements is true?
    
  A. Harold can't successfully assert the defense of fraud in the inducement to avoid paying $3,000 to Sally.

  B. Harold must pay Sally, but only to the extent of the value of the plasma TV that Tom bought from Sally.

  C. Harold can successfully assert the defense of fraud in the inducement to avoid paying $3,000 to Sally.

  D. Harold has a real defense that can be asserted against Sally.
19.   Congress passed the _______ which requires lenders to disclose the finance charge and the annual percentage rate.
    
  A. Fair Credit Reporting Act

  B. Equal Credit Opportunity Act

  C. Truth-in-Lending Act

  D. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act


 
20.   Even though Spice gives her four-year-old car to Homeless Helpers Charity, she
    
  A. need not provide an odometer statement, since the car is less than 15 years old.

  B. must set the odometer to zero before resale.

  C. must provide an odometer statement.

  D. need not provide an odometer statement.