BM380 Lesson 3 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
What are some of the problems associated with traditional telephone interviews?
Question options:

a)     Mistakes in administering the questions


b)     Insufficient call back for not-at-homes


c)     Dishonest interviewers


d)     All of the above

Question 2
What is NOT a unique advantage of using person-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Feedback


b)     Rapport


c)     Quality control


d)     Speed

Question 3
Which is TRUE regarding a disadvantage of self-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Because interviewers are not present, evaluation of the interview is impossible.


b)     The primary burden of respondent understanding is placed on the questionnaire.


c)     The primary burden of respondent understanding is placed on the field editor.


d)     Respondents feel anxious because they control the administration process.

Question 4
Which of the following will increase mail survey response rates?
Question options:

a)     Use of color


b)     Stamps, rather than preprinted postage paid on the return envelopes


c)     Use of a recognizable brand name


d)     Use of an alert letter

Question 5
Which of the following answers represents the four guidelines of question wording?
Question options:

a)     Focused, simple, complete, crystal clear


b)     General, simple, brief, crystal clear


c)     Focused, simple, brief, crystal clear


d)     Focused, elaborate, brief, crystal clear

Question 6
A typical computer-assisted questionnaire design program will assist the designer by offering computerized menus for design issues such as which of the following?
Question options:

a)     The type of question format


b)     The number of response categories


c)     Whether multiple responses are to be used


d)     All of the above features are typically offered.

Question 7
Age, income, gender, and interest in buying product X would all be considered __________ of the consumer, or object.
Question options:

a)     descriptions


b)     properties


c)     subjective descriptors


d)     objectives descriptors

Question 8
Adaptability refers to the ability to react to respondent differences. Which survey method is best suited for adaptability?
Question options:

a)     Computer-administered surveys


b)     Self-administered surveys


c)     Drop-off surveys


d)     Person-administered surveys

Question 9
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Ability to develop rapport with the respondent


b)     Speed


c)     Error-free interviewing


d)     Use of pictures, videos, and graphics

Question 10
Which of the following scale types best defines a scale measure in which respondents are asked to indicate their degree of agreement or disagreement on a symmetric continuum for each of a series of statements?
Question options:

a)     Semantic differential scale


b)     Nominal scale


c)     Likert scale


d)     Bipolar scale

Question 11
Which type of interview technique offers the advantages of cost, quality, and speed?
Question options:

a)     In-office interview


b)     Telephone interview


c)     Mall-intercept interview


d)     In-home interview

Question 12
Validity is best illustrated by which of the following?
Question options:

a)     Accuracy or truthfulness of the measurement


b)     The extent to which the reliability coefficient approaches 1.0


c)     The ability to repeat measurements


d)     Tendency to respond in the same manner to different questions

Question 13
If the distance between 2 - 3 and 6 - 7 on a scale are equal, the scale would likely be at least:
Question options:

a)     nominal.


b)     ordinal.


c)     interval.


d)     ratio.

Question 14
Some of the major advantages of using online surveys are:
Question options:

a)     easy-to-use SPAMBOTS to collect email addresses, lowering cost and increasing speed.


b)     real-time access to data and availability of many respondents attained by sending out randomly selected emails.


c)     low cost, speed, and sample representativeness.


d)     low cost, speed, and real-time access to data.

Question 15
Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement regarding the importance of the questionnaire in the research process?
Question options:

a)     Relatively speaking, the questionnaire is unimportant in the marketing research process.


b)     Not only is the questionnaire a very important ingredient, but its design affects the quality of the data collected; even experienced interviewers cannot compensate for questionnaire defects.


c)     The questionnaire is tied with the written report as being the most important item in the marketing research process.


d)     Not only is the questionnaire a very important ingredient, but its design affects the quality of the data collected, though experienced interviewers often compensate for questionnaire defects.

Question 16
One disadvantage of mall-intercept interviewing is that:
Question options:

a)     mall-intercepts, because they require the cooperation of all stores in a mall, are difficult to implement.


b)     turnover rates are high.


c)     mall shoppers may not be representative of the target market population.


d)     interviewers in mall-intercept studies are often distracted by mall activities.

Question 17
Which single characteristic is unique to a nominal type of measurement?
Question options:

a)     Description


b)     Order


c)     Distance


d)     Origin

Question 18
Questionnaire organization refers to:
Question options:

a)     the way questionnaires are organized in a filing system.


b)     the sequence of statements and questions that make up a questionnaire.


c)     organizations mainly existing to construct questionnaires.


d)     determining if the question looks right.

Question 19
A leading question is one that:
Question options:

a)     is used to begin the questionnaire and must be carefully worded for ease of response and also for interest.


b)     is used to begin the questionnaire and should address the key issue of the research project in case respondents refuse to answer further questions.


c)     is worded in such a way that gives the respondent a clue as to how to answer and should be avoided.


d)     is worded in such a way that gives the respondent a clue as to how to answer and should be used to help the researcher achieve the desired results.

Question 20
Which type of scale measure takes into account the values and personality traits of people as reflected in their unique activities, interests, and opinions toward their work, leisure time, and purchases?
Question options:

a)     Intensity series scale


b)     Lifestyle inventory


c)     Semantic differential scale


d)     AIO scale

BM380 Lesson 4 & 5 Exam SCORE 98 PERCENT

Lesson 4 Exam
Question 1
Sampling a geographical area using area sampling is a form of:
Question options:

a)     systematic, geographic sampling.


b)     simple random sampling.


c)     nonprobability sampling.


d)     cluster sampling.

Question 2
Simple random sampling is not a wise choice when you have:
Question options:

a)     a large population.


b)     a small population.


c)     a sample frame in electronic format.


d)     a large population that is not in electronic format.

Question 3
If we define our population as all households in the city of Chicago, Illinois, and we use the Chicago telephone directory from which to draw our sample units, we would likely have:
Question options:

a)     a survey with sample frame error.


b)     a representative survey.


c)     a survey containing no errors.


d)     a survey with a poorly defined master list.

Question 4
Reasons for taking a sample instead of a census include:
Question options:

a)     cost.


b)     inability of research firms to handle huge amounts of data generated by a census on a large population.


c)     There is no good reason; a census is preferred over a sample.


d)     A and B

Question 5
It is impossible to determine the probability when using nonprobability methods because:
Question options:

a)     the selection technique is subjective.


b)     the population size is known.


c)     the population size is unknown.


d)     the selection technique is objective.

Question 6
In _______ a sampling, the two-step approach is more costly than the one-step approach because more areas and time are involved.
Question options:

a)     population


b)     area


c)     unit


d)     census

Question 7
The target population for the U.S Census is:
Question options:

a)     all households in the United States.


b)     as many people as can be convinced to fill out the survey.


c)     a certain percentage of the population.


d)     an equal number of people from each region of the United States.

Question 8
A sampling method that separates the population into different subgroups and then samples one or some of these subgroups is:
Question options:

a)     cluster sampling.


b)     simple sampling.


c)     stratified sampling.


d)     systematic sampling.

Question 9
Sampling error is caused by two factors; one of them is:
Question options:

a)     the size of the population.


b)     the method of the sample unit definition.


c)     the method of sample selection.


d)     the method of population selection.

Question 10
In stratified sampling, we should always ensure that the sample drawn for each stratum is:
Question options:

a)     equal.


b)     proportionate to the stratum's proportion of the total population.


c)     of the appropriate size to ensure statistical efficiency.


d)     proportionate to the stratum's proportion of the total census.

Question 11
Which of the following may be used to overcome the problems of unlisted and new telephone numbers in a telephone directory?
Question options:

a)     Systematic sampling


b)     Random digit dialing


c)     CATI systems


d)     A different format

Question 12
Which of the following sample plans would NOT be considered a probability sample?
Question options:

a)     Simple random sample


b)     Systematic sample


c)     Cluster sample


d)     Judgment sample

Question 13
A subset of the population that should represent the entire group is known as a:
Question options:

a)     population.


b)     sample unit.


c)     census.


d)     sample.

Question 14
A master list of all the sample units in the population is known as the:
Question options:

a)     sample list.


b)     population master list.


c)     master frame.


d)     sample frame.

Question 15
One of the reasons systematic sampling is faster than simple random sampling is that the population size:
Question options:

a)     needs to be counted and numbered.


b)     does not need to be known.


c)     may be estimated and each element not numbered.


d)     cannot be known.

Question 16
Calculation of the skip interval is important in which sampling plan?
Question options:

a)     Simple random sample


b)     Systematic sample


c)     "Skip" sample


d)     Cluster sample

Question 17
The __________ used in systematic sampling is computed by dividing the population list size by the sample size.
Question options:

a)     skip interval


b)     representative data


c)     containing error


d)     master list

Question 18
Which of the following is the BEST definition of cluster sampling?
Question options:

a)     The population is divided into subgroups and a simple random sample is taken from each subgroup.


b)     The population is divided into subgroups; subgroups are combined into clusters, and subsets of clusters are sampled.


c)     The population is divided into subgroups and a single/or several subgroup(s) is/are then selected from which either a census or a sample is drawn.


d)     The population is divided into subgroups and a single/or several subgroup(s) is/are then selected from which only a sample is drawn.

Question 19
A sampling method that separates the population into different subgroups and then samples all of these subgroups is:
Question options:

a)     stratified sampling.


b)     area sampling.


c)     cluster sampling.


d)     simple sampling.

Question 20
You should obtain a listing of the population after:
Question options:

a)     defining the relevant population.


b)     accessing the population.


c)     designing the sample plan.


d)     drawing the sample.

Lesson 5 Exam
Question 21
__________ includes a failure on the part of a prospective respondent to take part in the survey, premature termination of the interview, or refusals to answer specific questions on the questionnaire.
Question options:

a)     Nonresponse


b)     Cheating


c)     Misunderstanding


d)     Attention loss

Question 22
You should obtain a listing of the population after:
Question options:

a)     defining the relevant population.


b)     accessing the population.


c)     designing the sample plan.


d)     drawing the sample.

Question 23
Sampling error is caused by two factors; one of them is the:
Question options:

a)     size of the population.


b)     method of the sample unit definition.


c)     method of sample selection.


d)     method of population selection.

Question 24
Which of the following is NOT one of the axioms of sample size and accuracy?
Question options:

a)     The only perfectly accurate sample is a census.


b)     A probability sample will always have some inaccuracy (sample error).


c)     Increasing sample size increases the sample's representativeness.


d)     A probability sample size can be a very tiny percentage of the population size and still be very accurate.

Question 25
Which of the following is the BEST definition of variability?
Question options:

a)     It is the amount of dispersion in a data set containing interval or nominal data.


b)     It is the difference between scores in the present sample and scores in a previous sample.


c)     It is the amount of dissimilarity in ordinal data.


d)     It is the amount of dissimilarity (or similarity) in respondents' answers to a particular question.

Question 26
A sample that has been determined by using a cost basis approach would be when the manager has discussed:
Question options:

a)     the statistical analysis with the research project director.


b)     the competitor's marketing results with the research project director.


c)     the previous marketing study with the research project director.


d)     the budget with the research project director and they have decided to spend "all they can afford" on the project.

Question 27
Which of the following is TRUE regarding probability samples?
Question options:

a)     They are as perfect as a census and contain no errors caused by competitors.


b)     They will always contain some inaccuracy (sample error).


c)     They contain serious mistakes, but can be adjusted by statistical weighting procedures.


d)     They are particularly susceptible to nonsampling errors.

Question 28
Sources of error that come from sources other than the sample selection method and sample size are referred to as:
Question options:

a)     serious mistakes.


b)     nonsampling errors.


c)     errors caused by competitors.


d)     errors caused by clients.

Question 29
__________ errors occur whenever a data collection person willfully violates the data collection requirements set forth by the researcher.
Question options:

a)     Unintentional fieldworker


b)     Intentional respondent


c)     Unintentional respondent


d)     Intentional fieldworker

Question 30
Sample accuracy refers to:
Question options:

a)     the extent to which the sample is validated.


b)     the extent to which the sample statistics differ from the true population values the statistics represent.


c)     the extent to which the population statistics differ from the representativeness of the sample.


d)     a statistical concept that can be assessed only theoretically.

Question 31
What three factors are needed to calculate sample size?
Question options:

a)     Variability, accuracy, and confidence level


b)     Variability, accuracy, and population size


c)     Accuracy, confidence level, and population size


d)     Accuracy, population size, and costs

Question 32
Which of the following is a general type of nonsampling error?
Question options:

a)     Fieldworker error


b)     Clerical error


c)     Forecast error


d)     Continuity error

Question 33
Which of the following is the theory that allows us to say that if we conducted a survey 1,000 times, and we were to plot the answers to our survey, the plot would appear as a normal curve?
Question options:

a)     The central limit theorem


b)     The normal curve theory


c)     The normal limit theorem


d)     The confidence interval theorem

Question 34
Which of the following samples have been determined by using the statistical analysis approach?
Question options:

a)     The sample size needed to properly analyze subgroups


b)     1,000 respondents


c)     Between 1,000 and 1,200 respondents


d)     200 respondents because each interview is $30

Question 35
The sample size determines:
Question options:

a)     representativeness.


b)     accuracy.


c)     representativeness and accuracy.


d)     the population statistic value.

Question 36
When all other factors are held constant, as we increase the level of accuracy, the sample size and the cost of a marketing research survey are best characterized by which of the following?
Question options:

a)     The sample size will increase but the cost will decrease.


b)     The sample size will decrease but the cost will increase.


c)     The sample size and the cost of the survey will increase.


d)     The sample size will remain the same but the cost will increase.

Question 37
__________ is defined as all errors in a survey except those attributable to the sample plan and sample size.
Question options:

a)     Transcriptional error


b)     Sampling risk


c)     Continuity error


d)     Nonsampling error

Question 38
A sample unit could be a:
Question options:

a)     household.


b)     consumer.


c)     purchasing agent.


d)     All of the above

Question 39
Ninety-five percent of the observations under the normal curve fall within __________ times the sample error.
Question options:

a)     ±1.64


b)     ±1.96





c)     ±2.58


d)     ±95

Question 40
Level of confidence in sample size formulae is normally set at:
Question options:

a)     95 percent or 96 percent.


b)     5 percent or 10 percent.


c)     95 percent or 99 percent.


d)     1 percent or 5 percent.

BM380 Lesson 6 & 7 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Lesson 6 Exam
Question 1
Question 1
The __________ holds that our actual sample is one of the many theoretical samples comprising the assumed bell-shaped curve of possible sample results using the hypothesized value as the center of the bell-shaped distribution.
Question options:

a)     standard deviation


b)     sampling distribution concept


c)     standard error of the statistic


d)     hypothesized parameter value

Question 2
Which of the following is NOT used to test hypotheses?
Question options:

a)     Sample statistic (mean or percentage)


b)     Parameter estimate


c)     Standard error of the statistic (mean or percentage)


d)     Hypothesized parameter value

Question 3
Statistical concepts such as t tests of differences and analysis of variance are forms of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     inference

Question 4
__________ are concerned with depicting the typical difference between the values in a set of values.
Question options:

a)     Cross-tabulations


b)     Multiple regressions


c)     Standard deviations


d)     Measures of variability

Question 5
The two types of statistical inferences often used by marketing researchers are:
Question options:

a)     frequency distributions and standard deviations.


b)     regression analyses and measures of variability.


c)     parameter estimates and hypothesis tests.


d)     descriptive analyses and predictive analyses.

Question 6
__________ analysis determines the strength and direction of relationships between two or more variables.
Question options:

a)     Differences


b)     Association


c)     Predictive


d)     Inference

Question 7
Which of the following refers to a measure of the variability in the sampling distribution based on what is theoretically believed to occur if we were to take a multitude of independent samples from the same population?
Question options:

a)     Multiple variance analysis


b)     Variance


c)     Standard error


d)     Predictive analysis

Question 8
The __________ is a descriptive analysis measure defined as that value in a string of numbers that occurs most often.
Question options:

a)     uncertainty


b)     contrast


c)     mode


d)     mean

Question 9
Suppose we wish to test the hypothesis that an internship program allows its interns to earn $2,750 per semester and let us assume that this hypothesis is, in fact, true. Which of the following best illustrates the logic of hypothesis testing at the 95% confidence level?
Question options:

a)     From among 100 samples, 95 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±1.96 z scores.


b)     From among 99 samples, 100 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±2.58 z scores.


c)     From among 100 samples, 95 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±2.58 z scores.


d)     From among 100 samples, 99 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±1.96 z scores.

Question 10
Statistical procedures and models are available to the marketing researcher to help make forecasts about future events, and these fall under the category of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     inference

Question 11
The square of standard deviation is known as:
Question options:

a)     a median.


b)     variance.


c)     standard deviation.


d)     sample size.

Question 12
Statistical concepts such as range and standard deviation are forms of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     descriptive

Question 13
The proper command sequence in SPSS to generate a confidence interval for a mean is:
Question options:

a)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-ONE-SAMPLE T TEST.


b)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-MEANS.


c)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-PAIRED SAMPLE T TEST.


d)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-INDEPENDENT SAMPLE T TEST.

Question 14
The __________ identifies the distance between lowest value and the highest value in an ordered set of values.
Question options:

a)     median


b)     variance


c)     standard deviation


d)     range

Question 15
________ is defined as the process of describing a dataset by computing a small number of statistics that characterize various aspects of the data.
Question options:

a)     Data normalization


b)     Data mining


c)     Data analysis


d)     Data coding

Question 16
Multiple regression is a form of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     difference


b)     association


c)     relationships


d)     inference

Question 17
__________ analysis is used by marketing researchers to describe the sample dataset in such a way as to portray the typical respondent and to reveal the general pattern of responses.
Question options:

a)     Differences


b)     Association


c)     Predictive


d)     Descriptive

Question 18
A demographic question such as "What is your gender?" should have which of the following central tendency measure for the responses?
Question options:

a)     Mode


b)     Variance


c)     Median


d)     Range

Question 19
A demographic question such as "On a scale of 1 to 5, how does Starbucks rate on variety of its coffee drinks?" should have which of the following central tendency measure for the responses?
Question options:

a)     Mode


b)     Variance


c)     Median


d)     Mean

Question 20
A 99 percent confidence interval allows us to say that if we took many samples from the population:
Question options:

a)     the whole sample would contain a range that included the population parameter.


b)     99 percent of all the samples would contain a range that included the population parameter.


c)     99 percent of all the samples would allow us to estimate the mean within ±1 percent.


d)     1 percent of all the samples would contain a range that included the population parameter.

Lesson 7 Exam
Question 21
Iams marketing over 20 different types of dog food, Toyota marketing over 20 different types of cars, and Boeing having five different types of commercial jets and a separate business jets division are all examples of:
Question options:

a)     differing markets strategy.


b)     marketing variation.


c)     market segmentation.


d)     market separation.

Question 22
Which type of relationship is described by relationships that may be S-shaped or J-shaped?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Linear relationship


c)     Curvilinear relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 23
Which of the following is NOT part of the advantages that ANOVA has over performing multiple t tests of the significance of the differences between means?
Question options:

a)     It immediately notifies the researcher if there is any significant difference.


b)     All the researcher needs to do is look at the "Sig."


c)     It arranges the means so the significant differences can be located.


d)     SPSS will only do ANOVA tests, not t tests of the differences between means.

Question 24
To be useful to the marketing researcher or manager, differences must be:
Question options:

a)     meaningful.


b)     stable.


c)     actionable.


d)     All of the above

Question 25
We know that McDonald's customers drink coffee for breakfast and soft drinks at lunch. This is an example of what type of relationship?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Linear relationship


c)     Monotonic relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 26
The owner of a shoe store knows that as children increase in age, their shoe size tends to get larger. This is an example of what type of relationship?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Duotonic relationship


c)     Monotonic relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 27
What is used to determine whether a nonmonotonic relationship exists between two nominal-scaled variables?
Question options:

a)     Tabulation analysis and t tests


b)     Cross-tabulation and chi-square tests


c)     Cross-tabulation and t tests


d)     Tabulation analysis and chi-square tests

Question 28
Let's assume there are juniors, seniors, and graduate students in your class and we want to know if their average GPAs differ. What is the proper statistical test?
Question options:

a)     t test


b)     means/differences test


c)     Levene's test


d)     ANOVA

Question 29
A meaningful difference is one that the marketing manager:
Question options:

a)     can potentially use as a basis for marketing decisions.


b)     deems to be statistically significant.


c)     finds to be at a ratio of 2 to 1.


d)     finds to be stable over at least a week or so.

Question 30
To test whether a true difference exists between two group percentages, we test the __________ hypothesis.
Question options:

a)     z


b)     t


c)     z or t hypothesis; it does not matter


d)     null

Question 31
The fact that different segments of flu or cold sufferers will consistently seek different medications targeted at their symptoms (sore throat, nasal congestion, cough, etc.) illustrates the use of differences that are:
Question options:

a)     significant.


b)     meaningful.


c)     stable.


d)     actionable.

Question 32
Fortunately, when testing for differences, you will not need to be concerned whether to use the t or z test because:
Question options:

a)     the z is easier to calculate and to interpret and should always be used.


b)     the t is more widely known among statisticians and should always be used.


c)     assumptions of the z and t are minimal and are of concern only to statisticians.


d)     SPSS, and most statistical software packages, are programmed to use the correct statistic.

Question 33
In order to be potentially useful for a marketing manager, differences must at minimum be:
Question options:

a)     at a ratio of 2 to 1.


b)     statistically significant.


c)     new and not part of existing knowledge.


d)     at a ratio of 10 to 1.

Question 34
Which BEST represents the correct meaning of statistical significance of differences?
Question options:

a)     The differences found in sample data may be found in other sample data.


b)     The differences found in sample data may be assumed to exist in the remainder of the sample.


c)     The differences found in the sample may be assumed to exist in the population.


d)     The differences found in the population may be assumed to exist in the sample.

Question 35
A cross-tabulation table is sometimes referred to as a:
Question options:

a)     tabular table.


b)     nonmonotonic display table.


c)     r x c table.


d)     t x n table.

Question 36
The t value is used for many tests instead of the z value because:
Question options:

a)     it is easier to calculate and to interpret.


b)     it is more widely known among statisticians.


c)     assumptions of the z value are violated if sample size is 30 or less.


d)     it is available on statistical software packages.

Question 37
The four basic types of relationships between two variables are:
Question options:

a)     nonmonotonic, duotonic, linear, and curvilinear.


b)     nonmonotonic, duotonic, sublinear, and curvilinear.


c)     nonmonotonic, monotonic, linear, and curvilinear.


d)     causal, consistent, systematic, and linear.

Question 38
You do not have a "relationship" that links the labels (or levels) for two variables unless the relationship is:
Question options:

a)     causal and consistent.


b)     consistent and systematic.


c)     systematic and causal.


d)     systematic and important.

Question 39
In your textbook, you learn to test for significant differences between:
Question options:

a)     two percentages or two means.


b)     two percentages or three percentages.


c)     two means or three percentages.


d)     three or more percentages.

Question 40
If you were to find a significant association between two nominally scaled variables, a good way to present the findings in your cross-tabulation table would be to use:


Question options:

a)     a p value for each nonmonotonic relationship found.


b)     a Sig. value for each nonmonotonic relationship found.


c)     graphical presentations.


d)     numerical presentations that clearly indicate the direction and strength of the relationship.

BM380 Lesson 8 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1
Which of the following is acceptable in a marketing research report table of contents?
Question options:

a)     Letter of authorization numbered with Arabic numerals


b)     Introduction pages are not numbered


c)     Executive summary listed with Arabic numerals


d)     Title page not listed

Question 2
Research is conducted to determine which recipe of cookie mix is most preferred. Cookie recipe "D" has the highest preference ratings among four cookie mixes tested. The report states that cookie mix "D" should replace all existing recipes as soon as possible. This last sentence is:
Question options:

a)     a recommendation.


b)     a conclusion.


c)     information that should be included in the front matter.


d)     a method.

Question 3
Signals that indicate the topics of each section and act like signals and signposts along the "road" of a marketing research report are referred to as:
Question options:

a)     headings and subheadings.


b)     tables of contents.


c)     tables.


d)     visuals.

Question 4
In the Chart Editor screen, right-click and select Properties Window. This window allows each of the following except:
Question options:

a)     fill and border


b)     size


c)     3-D elements


d)     truncated graph

Question 5
Which of the following is NOT a part of the front matter?
Question options:

a)     Introduction


b)     Title page


c)     Table of contents


d)     Abstract/executive summary

Question 6
Which type of visual introduces a set of topics and illustrates their relationships?
Question options:

a)     Table


b)     Picture


c)     Flow diagram


d)     Bar graph

Question 7
Which of the following identifies exact values?
Question options:

a)     Tables


b)     Pictures


c)     Maps


d)     Graphs

Question 8
Reporting of the details as to how the research was conducted is contained in the:
Question options:

a)     method section.


b)     conduct of research section.


c)     appendix.


d)     body.

Question 9
An aid to the reader in finding specific information that serves to graphically portray what is being said is referred to as:
Question options:

a)     list of appendices.


b)     list of illustrations.


c)     table of contents.


d)     list of tables.

Question 10
Which level heading should be left-justified, upper- and lower- case?
Question options:

a)     First


b)     Second


c)     Third


d)     Fourth

Question 11
Which of these items provides an overview, or "skeleton," of the research report including conclusions and recommendations?
Question options:

a)     Table of contents


b)     Title page


c)     Appendix


d)     Executive summary

Question 12
Research is conducted to determine which recipe of cookie mix is most preferred. Cookie recipe "D" has the highest preference ratings among four cookie mixes tested. This is:
Question options:

a)     a recommendation.


b)     a conclusion.


c)     information that should be included in the front matter.


d)     a method.

Question 13
Which section of the marketing research report contains the major portion of the report and presents the findings of the research?
Question options:

a)     Method


b)     Body


c)     Results


d)     Conclusions

Question 14
Which of the following would be included in the marketing research report introduction?
Question options:

a)     Title


b)     Executive summary


c)     Research objectives


d)     Results

Question 15
Which of the following would help the reader locate information in the research report?
Question options:

a)     Letter of transmittal


b)     Executive summary


c)     Table of contents


d)     Introduction

Question 16
The body of the report does NOT contain the:
Question options:

a)     conclusions.


b)     executive summary.


c)     introduction.


d)     results.

Question 17
A factual message that transmits research results, vital recommendations, conclusions, and other information to the client, who in turn uses the information as a basis for decision making, is known as:
Question options:

a)     article summary.


b)     marketing research report.


c)     body report.


d)     advancement report.

Question 18
Pie charts are particularly useful for illustrating:
Question options:

a)     relative size or static comparisons.


b)     items over time.


c)     detail.


d)     relationships found in the data.

Question 19
The letter of transmittal is used:
Question options:

a)     instead of delivering the document.


b)     to deliver the document.


c)     to deliver the document to a client outside the firm.


d)     to deliver the document within the firm.

Question 20
Which of the following examples may result in an unethical visual presentation of research findings?
Question options:

a)     If time is a variable, placing it on the horizontal axis


b)     Eliminating the scales on an axis


c)     Using a histogram rather than a pictogram


d)     Illustrating how many respondents refused to answer the question as part of the visual

BM380 Week 6 Threaded Discussion

Indicate what data analysis is and why it is useful.

BUSI502 Week 2 Assignment 3

Read the Case Study 3-2, The FBI. Answer the following questions: 

• What do you think were the real reasons why the VCF system failed?
• What were the points of alignment and misalignment between the Information Systems Strategy and the FBI organization?
• What do you think of the CIO's final comment about how to change attitudes? Do you think it will work? Why or why not?
• If you were the CIO, what would you do to help the FBI modernize and make better use of information technology?
  

BUSI502 Week 2 Article review

Article Review of Article:

Does Your Organization Culture Meet your Business Strategy?