BM380 Assignment 4

ASSIGNMENT 4

BM380 Marketing Research

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the "Format Requirementsʺ page located at the beginning of this learning guide for specific format requirements.

 

Case 1

 

Objective: Select the appropriate research design.

 

You have just graduated from college and are a newly hired researcher trainee at Georgia Metro Research. You have been asked to determine the appropriate research design for two new clients, as follows.

 

Client A is a consumer packaged goods manufacturer with a well-established brand name. The client has focused on manufacturing and distribution for years while the marketing program has been set on "auto pilot." All had worked fine, though there was a hint of emerging problems when, in the preceding year, market share had fallen slightly. Now, our client has just reviewed the current market share report and notices that over the previous 12 months, its share has gradually eroded 15 percent. When market share falls,clients are eager to learn whyand to take corrective action. In these situations we know immediately the problem is that we don't know what the problem is. There are many possible causes for this slippage. You need to determine the research design needed.

 

Client B is in a very competitive category with equal market share of the top three brands. Our client is convinced that it has changed every marketing mix variable possible except for package design. Since the three competitive brands are typically displayed side-by-side, the client wants us to determine what factors of package design (e.g., size, shape, color, texture) cause an increase in awareness, preference for, and intention to buy the brand. What do you recommend for the appropriate research design?

 

1.      What research design would you recommend for each of these clients?

 

2.      For the research design you selected for eachclient, explain why you believe your choice of design is the correct choice.

 

 

Case 2

 

Objective: Select the appropriate sampling plan.

 

Client A

 

Honda USA is interested in learning what its 550 U.S. dealers think about a new service program Honda provided to the dealers at the beginning of last year. Honda USA wants to know if the dealers are using the program and, if so, what they like anddislike about the program. Honda USA does not want to survey all 550 dealers, but wants to ensure that the results are representative of all the dealers.

 

Client B

 

A researcher has the task of estimating how many units of a new, revolutionary photocopy machine (it does not require ink cartridges and is guaranteed not to jam) will be purchased by business firms in Cleveland, Ohio, for the upcoming annual sales forecast. She is going to ask about their likelihood of purchasing the new device, and for those "very likely" to purchase, she wants respondents to estimate how many machines their company will buy. She has data that will allow her to divide the companies into small, medium, and large firms based on number of employees at the Cleveland office.

 

1.      Of the four probability sampling methods that the researcher could use, what sampling plan should be used for each of these clients?

 

2.      Briefly discuss your reasoning for your choice of sampling plan for each case.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

BM380 Assignment 8

ASSIGNMENT 8

BM380 Marketing Research

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should be four (4) double‐spaced pages; refer to the "Format Requirementsʺ page located at the beginning of this learning guide for specific format requirements.

 

Writing the Marketing Research Report

 

All of the work is almost done. You have designed your research project; collected and prepared your data; and analyzed the results. It is time to communicate your marketing research findings. In order to do so, you must be able to address the following.

 

1.      Discuss the relative importance of the marketing research report to other stages in the marketing research process.

 

2.      Review the components of the elements of a Marketing Report. Then identify and differentiate the three major sections of a marketing research report.

 

3.      Distinguish among the elements of results, conclusions, and recommendations.

 

4.      What are some alternate ways researchers may report findings? What are some important things researchers should keep in mind when using alternate or innovative reporting vehicles?

BM380 Lesson 1 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
When a researcher is called in after the management has defined the problem, the researcher should:
Question options:

a)     bring in a fresh, unbiased view of the problem statement.


b)     accept management's definition of the problem and start the study.


c)     ensure that the research is done with maximum accuracy in the shortest possible time.


d)     turn the management's statement of the problem into a generally defined research objective.

Question 2
In discussing the structure of the marketing research industry, the textbook authors define an internal supplier firm as one that:
Question options:

a)     makes research decisions based primarily upon information supplied by the internal reports system.


b)     is organized in a staff relationship to other internal departments.


c)     provides syndicated services, but only to members of the syndicate.


d)     has its marketing research provided by an entity, such as a marketing research department, within the firm.

Question 3
Which of the following is a breach of ethics?
Question options:

a)     Extending the time for the conclusion of a research project to meet standards


b)     Seeking help from experts outside the company free-of-cost on nonconfidential matters


c)     Using a company's research proposal for competitive bidding


d)     Seeking the help of researchers outside the company on nonconfidential matters

Question 4
Which of the following statements best illustrates the service-dominant logic for marketing philosophy?
Question options:

a)     Marketing decision makers should know their firm's core competencies.


b)     Marketing decision makers need to know how to precisely measure service satisfaction.


c)     Marketing decision makers must be able to directly impact ROI.


d)     The quality of internal service levels is more important than the quality of external service levels.

Question 5
__________ are statements that are considered true for the purposes of argument or investigation.
Question options:

a)     Maxims


b)     Hypotheses


c)     Aphorisms


d)     Assumptions

Question 6
Information gaps are discrepancies between:
Question options:

a)     the information collected by a researcher and by a marketer.


b)     the information obtained from primary sources and secondary sources.


c)     a researcher's and a manager's information states.


d)     the current information level and the desired level of information.

Question 7
A marketing research proposal contains:
Question options:

a)     important assumptions made by the researcher.


b)     the action standards for a project.


c)     the timetable for a research project.


d)     problem symptoms associated with research.

Question 8
The marketing concept is an important philosophy for marketing managers because it dictates:
Question options:

a)     the amount of quarterly profits a firm will earn.


b)     the market share a firm will earn.


c)     day-to-day decisions that managers will make.


d)     whether or not the firm will reach its sales quota.

Question 9
The definition of a construct that describes the actions to be carried out for the construct to be measured empirically is known as a(n):
Question options:

a)     ostensive definition.


b)     contextual definition.


c)     operational definition.


d)     theoretical definition.

Question 10
Akron's Children's Hospital hired research firm, Marcus Thomas, LLC, to determine the most effective communication messages to use in a new ad campaign being developed by the hospital. This was an effort in:
Question options:

a)     target market selection.


b)     product research.


c)     pricing research.


d)     promotion research.

Question 11
Based on the AMA's definition of marketing research, which of the following is NOT one of the uses of marketing research?
Question options:

a)     To identify and define marketing opportunities and problems


b)     To solve general, not specific, marketing problems


c)     To generate, refine, and evaluate marketing actions


d)     To monitor marketing performance

Question 12
The difference between basic research and applied research is that basic research is conducted to:
Question options:

a)     determine the most appropriate basic price for new products.


b)     determine the most efficient basic distribution channels for products.


c)     expand our knowledge, rather than solve a specific problem.


d)     determine the most basic desired features in new products.

Question 13
Owners/proprietors of small firms are more likely to take advantage of:
Question options:

a)     specialized internal research teams.


b)     research agencies.


c)     informal departments organized around budget categories.


d)     do-it-yourself research.

Question 14
Which of the following professional organizations is devoted to improving the quality of the marketing research industry and to ensuring the future of the marketing research profession?
Question options:

a)     AMA (American Marketing Association)


b)     MRA (Marketing Research Association)


c)     QRCA (Q Research Council & Association)


d)     AAPOR (American Association for Public Opinion Research)

Question 15
Professional organizations try to prescribe ethical behavior for members by creating:
Question options:

a)     representatives in churches to influence future researchers.


b)     codes of ethical behavior.


c)     lobbyists who fight for higher ethical standards in government.


d)     examples of poor ethical behavior in other professions.

Question 16
The key reason that the marketing concept has been recognized as the "right" philosophy is that it:
Question options:

a)     is well-established in marketing literature.


b)     has been recommended by successful marketing executives.


c)     always focuses on the consumer.


d)     does not rely on high-pressure selling.

Question 17
Which of the following is the best definition of marketing research? Marketing research is:
Question options:

a)     the activity of analyzing secondary information and providing executives with timely reports.


b)     the process of designing experiments that provide decision makers with causal information.


c)     the linking of consumers with information managers.


d)     the process of designing, gathering, analyzing, and reporting information that may be used to solve a specific marketing problem.

Question 18
Firms that collect information, store it on a common database, and make it available to multiple subscribers are called:
Question options:

a)     internal subscription services.


b)     syndicated data service firms.


c)     packaged services firms.


d)     internal supplier firms.

Question 19
__________ satisfies the need for companies to identify and test new products to replace products which are at the end of their product life cycles.
Question options:

a)     Target market selection


b)     Product research


c)     Distribution research


d)     Promotion research

Question 20
To develop the "right strategy" to succeed in business, managers must make the right decisions; and in order to make the right decisions, they must have objective, accurate, and timely:
Question options:

a)     reports about the competition.


b)     reports about customers' wants and needs.


c)     evidence of the number and sizes of market segments.


d)     information.


Done

BM380 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1
Question 1
Which of the following is the best description of research design?
Question options:

a)     A set of advance decisions that makes up the master plan specifying the methods and procedures for collecting and analyzing the needed information


b)     A marketing term or concept involved in the marketing management problem that will be researched


c)     The specific pieces of information which are necessary to solve the problem at hand


d)     A list from which sample elements are drawn from the sample, which contains all of the elements in the population being studied

Question 2
A researcher presenting secondary data as if it were primary data collected by the researcher is an egregious example of an ethical lapse in what area of sensitivity in planning research design?
Question options:

a)     Recommending a more costly design than is needed


b)     Designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients


c)     Misrepresenting sampling methods


d)     Wrongfully gaining respondent cooperation to reduce costs

Question 3
What type of research design does the textbook state should almost always be used in research studies?
Question options:

a)     Causal research


b)     Exploratory research


c)     Explicit research


d)     Exhaustive research

Question 4
The various types of research design include:
Question options:

a)     exploratory, exploitive, and competitive.


b)     deductive, descriptive, and exploitive.


c)     exploratory, causal, and competitive.


d)     exploratory, descriptive, and causal.

Question 5
External secondary data may be grouped into which three sources?
Question options:

a)     Published, syndicated services data, and databases


b)     Published, unpublished data, and other electronic sources


c)     Syndicated services data, external data, and complex data


d)     Fields, records, databases

Question 6
How can it be determined if an experiment is valid?
Question options:

a)     The observed change in the dependent variable is in fact due to the independent variable.


b)     The results of the experiment apply to the real world outside the experimental setting.


c)     The results do not account for the effects of extraneous variables.


d)     Both a and b

Question 7
Which of the following is an objective of research?
Question options:

a)     To gain background information and to develop hypotheses


b)     To measure the state of a variable of interest (for example, level of brand loyalty)


c)     To test hypotheses that specify the relationships between two or more variables (for example, level of advertising and brand loyalty)


d)     All of the above

Question 8
What type of research design should a researcher use if he or she wishes to determine the effect of a change in price on the sales of a particular brand?
Question options:

a)     Causal


b)     Exploitive


c)     Longitudinal


d)     Exploratory

Question 9
Longitudinal studies can be described as techniques that:
Question options:

a)     measure the population at only one point in time.


b)     develop an understanding of a phenomenon in terms of "if-then" conditional statements.


c)     search for and interpret existing information relevant to the research problem.


d)     repeatedly measure the same sample units from the population over a period of time.

Question 10
What type of research design should a marketing researcher use to find out how many customers there are, what brands they buy and in what quantities, which advertisements they recall, what are their attitudes toward the company, and who is the competition?
Question options:

a)     Exploratory research


b)     Descriptive research


c)     Causal research


d)     Explicit research

Question 11
Ray Kroc, a milk-shake machine salesman, noticed that one restaurant in California burned up many milk-shake machines. He inferred that the restaurant was meeting the needs of the market better than other restaurants. His observation illustrates the use of:
Question options:

a)     observational deduction.


b)     exploratory research.


c)     explanatory research.


d)     causal research.

Question 12
All the following are areas of ethical sensitivity in planning research design EXCEPT:
Question options:

a)     recommending a more costly design than is needed.


b)     designing a study in which data are collected for multiple clients.


c)     misrepresenting sampling methods.


d)     basing the research design on the results of secondary data.

Question 13
Which of the following represents an application of secondary data?
Question options:

a)     Predicting broad changes in culture


b)     Selecting a street location for a new car wash


c)     Economic-trends forecasting


d)     All of the above are applications of secondary data.

Question 14
Which of the following was NOT discussed in the textbook as an advantage of using secondary data?
Question options:

a)     May be obtained quickly


b)     May be obtained in any form desired by the researcher


c)     Is relatively inexpensive


d)     Is usually available

Question 15
Which of the following is a potential use of test marketing?
Question options:

a)     To test the sales potential for a new product


b)     To test variations in the marketing mix for a product


c)     To test the sales potential for a new service


d)     All of the above

Question 16
Which of the following would be classified as a part of internal secondary data?
Question options:

a)     Internal database


b)     Online information database


c)     Demographic data within a company's target market


d)     Any government data

Question 17
What type of test marketing should be used when a firm wants to test the product and/or marketing mix variables through the company's normal distribution channels?
Question options:

a)     Controlled test markets


b)     Electronic test markets


c)     Simulated test markets


d)     Standard test markets

Question 18
Which of the following best represents the criteria discussed by the textbook authors to be used in selection of a test market city?
Question options:

a)     Representativeness, isolation, and control of distribution and promotion


b)     Representativeness, isolation, and cost


c)     Representativeness, existing company presence, and control of promotion


d)     Representativeness, cost, and control of competitor's intelligence

Question 19
Packaged services differ from syndicated data services. In the former, each client is provided with:
Question options:

a)     data shared from a common database.


b)     no data.


c)     intermittent service.


d)     the same service as a result of a common process.

Question 20
Appropriate methods for conducting exploratory research would include:
Question options:

a)     secondary data analysis.


b)     experiments.


c)     sample surveys.


d)     longitudinal research.

BM380 Lesson 3 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1
What are some of the problems associated with traditional telephone interviews?
Question options:

a)     Mistakes in administering the questions


b)     Insufficient call back for not-at-homes


c)     Dishonest interviewers


d)     All of the above

Question 2
What is NOT a unique advantage of using person-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Feedback


b)     Rapport


c)     Quality control


d)     Speed

Question 3
Which is TRUE regarding a disadvantage of self-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Because interviewers are not present, evaluation of the interview is impossible.


b)     The primary burden of respondent understanding is placed on the questionnaire.


c)     The primary burden of respondent understanding is placed on the field editor.


d)     Respondents feel anxious because they control the administration process.

Question 4
Which of the following will increase mail survey response rates?
Question options:

a)     Use of color


b)     Stamps, rather than preprinted postage paid on the return envelopes


c)     Use of a recognizable brand name


d)     Use of an alert letter

Question 5
Which of the following answers represents the four guidelines of question wording?
Question options:

a)     Focused, simple, complete, crystal clear


b)     General, simple, brief, crystal clear


c)     Focused, simple, brief, crystal clear


d)     Focused, elaborate, brief, crystal clear

Question 6
A typical computer-assisted questionnaire design program will assist the designer by offering computerized menus for design issues such as which of the following?
Question options:

a)     The type of question format


b)     The number of response categories


c)     Whether multiple responses are to be used


d)     All of the above features are typically offered.

Question 7
Age, income, gender, and interest in buying product X would all be considered __________ of the consumer, or object.
Question options:

a)     descriptions


b)     properties


c)     subjective descriptors


d)     objectives descriptors

Question 8
Adaptability refers to the ability to react to respondent differences. Which survey method is best suited for adaptability?
Question options:

a)     Computer-administered surveys


b)     Self-administered surveys


c)     Drop-off surveys


d)     Person-administered surveys

Question 9
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of computer-administered surveys?
Question options:

a)     Ability to develop rapport with the respondent


b)     Speed


c)     Error-free interviewing


d)     Use of pictures, videos, and graphics

Question 10
Which of the following scale types best defines a scale measure in which respondents are asked to indicate their degree of agreement or disagreement on a symmetric continuum for each of a series of statements?
Question options:

a)     Semantic differential scale


b)     Nominal scale


c)     Likert scale


d)     Bipolar scale

Question 11
Which type of interview technique offers the advantages of cost, quality, and speed?
Question options:

a)     In-office interview


b)     Telephone interview


c)     Mall-intercept interview


d)     In-home interview

Question 12
Validity is best illustrated by which of the following?
Question options:

a)     Accuracy or truthfulness of the measurement


b)     The extent to which the reliability coefficient approaches 1.0


c)     The ability to repeat measurements


d)     Tendency to respond in the same manner to different questions

Question 13
If the distance between 2 - 3 and 6 - 7 on a scale are equal, the scale would likely be at least:
Question options:

a)     nominal.


b)     ordinal.


c)     interval.


d)     ratio.

Question 14
Some of the major advantages of using online surveys are:
Question options:

a)     easy-to-use SPAMBOTS to collect email addresses, lowering cost and increasing speed.


b)     real-time access to data and availability of many respondents attained by sending out randomly selected emails.


c)     low cost, speed, and sample representativeness.


d)     low cost, speed, and real-time access to data.

Question 15
Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement regarding the importance of the questionnaire in the research process?
Question options:

a)     Relatively speaking, the questionnaire is unimportant in the marketing research process.


b)     Not only is the questionnaire a very important ingredient, but its design affects the quality of the data collected; even experienced interviewers cannot compensate for questionnaire defects.


c)     The questionnaire is tied with the written report as being the most important item in the marketing research process.


d)     Not only is the questionnaire a very important ingredient, but its design affects the quality of the data collected, though experienced interviewers often compensate for questionnaire defects.

Question 16
One disadvantage of mall-intercept interviewing is that:
Question options:

a)     mall-intercepts, because they require the cooperation of all stores in a mall, are difficult to implement.


b)     turnover rates are high.


c)     mall shoppers may not be representative of the target market population.


d)     interviewers in mall-intercept studies are often distracted by mall activities.

Question 17
Which single characteristic is unique to a nominal type of measurement?
Question options:

a)     Description


b)     Order


c)     Distance


d)     Origin

Question 18
Questionnaire organization refers to:
Question options:

a)     the way questionnaires are organized in a filing system.


b)     the sequence of statements and questions that make up a questionnaire.


c)     organizations mainly existing to construct questionnaires.


d)     determining if the question looks right.

Question 19
A leading question is one that:
Question options:

a)     is used to begin the questionnaire and must be carefully worded for ease of response and also for interest.


b)     is used to begin the questionnaire and should address the key issue of the research project in case respondents refuse to answer further questions.


c)     is worded in such a way that gives the respondent a clue as to how to answer and should be avoided.


d)     is worded in such a way that gives the respondent a clue as to how to answer and should be used to help the researcher achieve the desired results.

Question 20
Which type of scale measure takes into account the values and personality traits of people as reflected in their unique activities, interests, and opinions toward their work, leisure time, and purchases?
Question options:

a)     Intensity series scale


b)     Lifestyle inventory


c)     Semantic differential scale


d)     AIO scale

BM380 Lesson 4 & 5 Exam SCORE 98 PERCENT

Lesson 4 Exam
Question 1
Sampling a geographical area using area sampling is a form of:
Question options:

a)     systematic, geographic sampling.


b)     simple random sampling.


c)     nonprobability sampling.


d)     cluster sampling.

Question 2
Simple random sampling is not a wise choice when you have:
Question options:

a)     a large population.


b)     a small population.


c)     a sample frame in electronic format.


d)     a large population that is not in electronic format.

Question 3
If we define our population as all households in the city of Chicago, Illinois, and we use the Chicago telephone directory from which to draw our sample units, we would likely have:
Question options:

a)     a survey with sample frame error.


b)     a representative survey.


c)     a survey containing no errors.


d)     a survey with a poorly defined master list.

Question 4
Reasons for taking a sample instead of a census include:
Question options:

a)     cost.


b)     inability of research firms to handle huge amounts of data generated by a census on a large population.


c)     There is no good reason; a census is preferred over a sample.


d)     A and B

Question 5
It is impossible to determine the probability when using nonprobability methods because:
Question options:

a)     the selection technique is subjective.


b)     the population size is known.


c)     the population size is unknown.


d)     the selection technique is objective.

Question 6
In _______ a sampling, the two-step approach is more costly than the one-step approach because more areas and time are involved.
Question options:

a)     population


b)     area


c)     unit


d)     census

Question 7
The target population for the U.S Census is:
Question options:

a)     all households in the United States.


b)     as many people as can be convinced to fill out the survey.


c)     a certain percentage of the population.


d)     an equal number of people from each region of the United States.

Question 8
A sampling method that separates the population into different subgroups and then samples one or some of these subgroups is:
Question options:

a)     cluster sampling.


b)     simple sampling.


c)     stratified sampling.


d)     systematic sampling.

Question 9
Sampling error is caused by two factors; one of them is:
Question options:

a)     the size of the population.


b)     the method of the sample unit definition.


c)     the method of sample selection.


d)     the method of population selection.

Question 10
In stratified sampling, we should always ensure that the sample drawn for each stratum is:
Question options:

a)     equal.


b)     proportionate to the stratum's proportion of the total population.


c)     of the appropriate size to ensure statistical efficiency.


d)     proportionate to the stratum's proportion of the total census.

Question 11
Which of the following may be used to overcome the problems of unlisted and new telephone numbers in a telephone directory?
Question options:

a)     Systematic sampling


b)     Random digit dialing


c)     CATI systems


d)     A different format

Question 12
Which of the following sample plans would NOT be considered a probability sample?
Question options:

a)     Simple random sample


b)     Systematic sample


c)     Cluster sample


d)     Judgment sample

Question 13
A subset of the population that should represent the entire group is known as a:
Question options:

a)     population.


b)     sample unit.


c)     census.


d)     sample.

Question 14
A master list of all the sample units in the population is known as the:
Question options:

a)     sample list.


b)     population master list.


c)     master frame.


d)     sample frame.

Question 15
One of the reasons systematic sampling is faster than simple random sampling is that the population size:
Question options:

a)     needs to be counted and numbered.


b)     does not need to be known.


c)     may be estimated and each element not numbered.


d)     cannot be known.

Question 16
Calculation of the skip interval is important in which sampling plan?
Question options:

a)     Simple random sample


b)     Systematic sample


c)     "Skip" sample


d)     Cluster sample

Question 17
The __________ used in systematic sampling is computed by dividing the population list size by the sample size.
Question options:

a)     skip interval


b)     representative data


c)     containing error


d)     master list

Question 18
Which of the following is the BEST definition of cluster sampling?
Question options:

a)     The population is divided into subgroups and a simple random sample is taken from each subgroup.


b)     The population is divided into subgroups; subgroups are combined into clusters, and subsets of clusters are sampled.


c)     The population is divided into subgroups and a single/or several subgroup(s) is/are then selected from which either a census or a sample is drawn.


d)     The population is divided into subgroups and a single/or several subgroup(s) is/are then selected from which only a sample is drawn.

Question 19
A sampling method that separates the population into different subgroups and then samples all of these subgroups is:
Question options:

a)     stratified sampling.


b)     area sampling.


c)     cluster sampling.


d)     simple sampling.

Question 20
You should obtain a listing of the population after:
Question options:

a)     defining the relevant population.


b)     accessing the population.


c)     designing the sample plan.


d)     drawing the sample.

Lesson 5 Exam
Question 21
__________ includes a failure on the part of a prospective respondent to take part in the survey, premature termination of the interview, or refusals to answer specific questions on the questionnaire.
Question options:

a)     Nonresponse


b)     Cheating


c)     Misunderstanding


d)     Attention loss

Question 22
You should obtain a listing of the population after:
Question options:

a)     defining the relevant population.


b)     accessing the population.


c)     designing the sample plan.


d)     drawing the sample.

Question 23
Sampling error is caused by two factors; one of them is the:
Question options:

a)     size of the population.


b)     method of the sample unit definition.


c)     method of sample selection.


d)     method of population selection.

Question 24
Which of the following is NOT one of the axioms of sample size and accuracy?
Question options:

a)     The only perfectly accurate sample is a census.


b)     A probability sample will always have some inaccuracy (sample error).


c)     Increasing sample size increases the sample's representativeness.


d)     A probability sample size can be a very tiny percentage of the population size and still be very accurate.

Question 25
Which of the following is the BEST definition of variability?
Question options:

a)     It is the amount of dispersion in a data set containing interval or nominal data.


b)     It is the difference between scores in the present sample and scores in a previous sample.


c)     It is the amount of dissimilarity in ordinal data.


d)     It is the amount of dissimilarity (or similarity) in respondents' answers to a particular question.

Question 26
A sample that has been determined by using a cost basis approach would be when the manager has discussed:
Question options:

a)     the statistical analysis with the research project director.


b)     the competitor's marketing results with the research project director.


c)     the previous marketing study with the research project director.


d)     the budget with the research project director and they have decided to spend "all they can afford" on the project.

Question 27
Which of the following is TRUE regarding probability samples?
Question options:

a)     They are as perfect as a census and contain no errors caused by competitors.


b)     They will always contain some inaccuracy (sample error).


c)     They contain serious mistakes, but can be adjusted by statistical weighting procedures.


d)     They are particularly susceptible to nonsampling errors.

Question 28
Sources of error that come from sources other than the sample selection method and sample size are referred to as:
Question options:

a)     serious mistakes.


b)     nonsampling errors.


c)     errors caused by competitors.


d)     errors caused by clients.

Question 29
__________ errors occur whenever a data collection person willfully violates the data collection requirements set forth by the researcher.
Question options:

a)     Unintentional fieldworker


b)     Intentional respondent


c)     Unintentional respondent


d)     Intentional fieldworker

Question 30
Sample accuracy refers to:
Question options:

a)     the extent to which the sample is validated.


b)     the extent to which the sample statistics differ from the true population values the statistics represent.


c)     the extent to which the population statistics differ from the representativeness of the sample.


d)     a statistical concept that can be assessed only theoretically.

Question 31
What three factors are needed to calculate sample size?
Question options:

a)     Variability, accuracy, and confidence level


b)     Variability, accuracy, and population size


c)     Accuracy, confidence level, and population size


d)     Accuracy, population size, and costs

Question 32
Which of the following is a general type of nonsampling error?
Question options:

a)     Fieldworker error


b)     Clerical error


c)     Forecast error


d)     Continuity error

Question 33
Which of the following is the theory that allows us to say that if we conducted a survey 1,000 times, and we were to plot the answers to our survey, the plot would appear as a normal curve?
Question options:

a)     The central limit theorem


b)     The normal curve theory


c)     The normal limit theorem


d)     The confidence interval theorem

Question 34
Which of the following samples have been determined by using the statistical analysis approach?
Question options:

a)     The sample size needed to properly analyze subgroups


b)     1,000 respondents


c)     Between 1,000 and 1,200 respondents


d)     200 respondents because each interview is $30

Question 35
The sample size determines:
Question options:

a)     representativeness.


b)     accuracy.


c)     representativeness and accuracy.


d)     the population statistic value.

Question 36
When all other factors are held constant, as we increase the level of accuracy, the sample size and the cost of a marketing research survey are best characterized by which of the following?
Question options:

a)     The sample size will increase but the cost will decrease.


b)     The sample size will decrease but the cost will increase.


c)     The sample size and the cost of the survey will increase.


d)     The sample size will remain the same but the cost will increase.

Question 37
__________ is defined as all errors in a survey except those attributable to the sample plan and sample size.
Question options:

a)     Transcriptional error


b)     Sampling risk


c)     Continuity error


d)     Nonsampling error

Question 38
A sample unit could be a:
Question options:

a)     household.


b)     consumer.


c)     purchasing agent.


d)     All of the above

Question 39
Ninety-five percent of the observations under the normal curve fall within __________ times the sample error.
Question options:

a)     ±1.64


b)     ±1.96





c)     ±2.58


d)     ±95

Question 40
Level of confidence in sample size formulae is normally set at:
Question options:

a)     95 percent or 96 percent.


b)     5 percent or 10 percent.


c)     95 percent or 99 percent.


d)     1 percent or 5 percent.

BM380 Lesson 6 & 7 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Lesson 6 Exam
Question 1
Question 1
The __________ holds that our actual sample is one of the many theoretical samples comprising the assumed bell-shaped curve of possible sample results using the hypothesized value as the center of the bell-shaped distribution.
Question options:

a)     standard deviation


b)     sampling distribution concept


c)     standard error of the statistic


d)     hypothesized parameter value

Question 2
Which of the following is NOT used to test hypotheses?
Question options:

a)     Sample statistic (mean or percentage)


b)     Parameter estimate


c)     Standard error of the statistic (mean or percentage)


d)     Hypothesized parameter value

Question 3
Statistical concepts such as t tests of differences and analysis of variance are forms of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     inference

Question 4
__________ are concerned with depicting the typical difference between the values in a set of values.
Question options:

a)     Cross-tabulations


b)     Multiple regressions


c)     Standard deviations


d)     Measures of variability

Question 5
The two types of statistical inferences often used by marketing researchers are:
Question options:

a)     frequency distributions and standard deviations.


b)     regression analyses and measures of variability.


c)     parameter estimates and hypothesis tests.


d)     descriptive analyses and predictive analyses.

Question 6
__________ analysis determines the strength and direction of relationships between two or more variables.
Question options:

a)     Differences


b)     Association


c)     Predictive


d)     Inference

Question 7
Which of the following refers to a measure of the variability in the sampling distribution based on what is theoretically believed to occur if we were to take a multitude of independent samples from the same population?
Question options:

a)     Multiple variance analysis


b)     Variance


c)     Standard error


d)     Predictive analysis

Question 8
The __________ is a descriptive analysis measure defined as that value in a string of numbers that occurs most often.
Question options:

a)     uncertainty


b)     contrast


c)     mode


d)     mean

Question 9
Suppose we wish to test the hypothesis that an internship program allows its interns to earn $2,750 per semester and let us assume that this hypothesis is, in fact, true. Which of the following best illustrates the logic of hypothesis testing at the 95% confidence level?
Question options:

a)     From among 100 samples, 95 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±1.96 z scores.


b)     From among 99 samples, 100 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±2.58 z scores.


c)     From among 100 samples, 95 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±2.58 z scores.


d)     From among 100 samples, 99 percent of them would generate means that fell within ±1.96 z scores.

Question 10
Statistical procedures and models are available to the marketing researcher to help make forecasts about future events, and these fall under the category of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     inference

Question 11
The square of standard deviation is known as:
Question options:

a)     a median.


b)     variance.


c)     standard deviation.


d)     sample size.

Question 12
Statistical concepts such as range and standard deviation are forms of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     differences


b)     association


c)     predictive


d)     descriptive

Question 13
The proper command sequence in SPSS to generate a confidence interval for a mean is:
Question options:

a)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-ONE-SAMPLE T TEST.


b)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-MEANS.


c)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-PAIRED SAMPLE T TEST.


d)     ANALYZE-COMPARE MEANS-INDEPENDENT SAMPLE T TEST.

Question 14
The __________ identifies the distance between lowest value and the highest value in an ordered set of values.
Question options:

a)     median


b)     variance


c)     standard deviation


d)     range

Question 15
________ is defined as the process of describing a dataset by computing a small number of statistics that characterize various aspects of the data.
Question options:

a)     Data normalization


b)     Data mining


c)     Data analysis


d)     Data coding

Question 16
Multiple regression is a form of __________ analysis.
Question options:

a)     difference


b)     association


c)     relationships


d)     inference

Question 17
__________ analysis is used by marketing researchers to describe the sample dataset in such a way as to portray the typical respondent and to reveal the general pattern of responses.
Question options:

a)     Differences


b)     Association


c)     Predictive


d)     Descriptive

Question 18
A demographic question such as "What is your gender?" should have which of the following central tendency measure for the responses?
Question options:

a)     Mode


b)     Variance


c)     Median


d)     Range

Question 19
A demographic question such as "On a scale of 1 to 5, how does Starbucks rate on variety of its coffee drinks?" should have which of the following central tendency measure for the responses?
Question options:

a)     Mode


b)     Variance


c)     Median


d)     Mean

Question 20
A 99 percent confidence interval allows us to say that if we took many samples from the population:
Question options:

a)     the whole sample would contain a range that included the population parameter.


b)     99 percent of all the samples would contain a range that included the population parameter.


c)     99 percent of all the samples would allow us to estimate the mean within ±1 percent.


d)     1 percent of all the samples would contain a range that included the population parameter.

Lesson 7 Exam
Question 21
Iams marketing over 20 different types of dog food, Toyota marketing over 20 different types of cars, and Boeing having five different types of commercial jets and a separate business jets division are all examples of:
Question options:

a)     differing markets strategy.


b)     marketing variation.


c)     market segmentation.


d)     market separation.

Question 22
Which type of relationship is described by relationships that may be S-shaped or J-shaped?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Linear relationship


c)     Curvilinear relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 23
Which of the following is NOT part of the advantages that ANOVA has over performing multiple t tests of the significance of the differences between means?
Question options:

a)     It immediately notifies the researcher if there is any significant difference.


b)     All the researcher needs to do is look at the "Sig."


c)     It arranges the means so the significant differences can be located.


d)     SPSS will only do ANOVA tests, not t tests of the differences between means.

Question 24
To be useful to the marketing researcher or manager, differences must be:
Question options:

a)     meaningful.


b)     stable.


c)     actionable.


d)     All of the above

Question 25
We know that McDonald's customers drink coffee for breakfast and soft drinks at lunch. This is an example of what type of relationship?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Linear relationship


c)     Monotonic relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 26
The owner of a shoe store knows that as children increase in age, their shoe size tends to get larger. This is an example of what type of relationship?
Question options:

a)     Causal relationship


b)     Duotonic relationship


c)     Monotonic relationship


d)     Nonmonotonic relationship

Question 27
What is used to determine whether a nonmonotonic relationship exists between two nominal-scaled variables?
Question options:

a)     Tabulation analysis and t tests


b)     Cross-tabulation and chi-square tests


c)     Cross-tabulation and t tests


d)     Tabulation analysis and chi-square tests

Question 28
Let's assume there are juniors, seniors, and graduate students in your class and we want to know if their average GPAs differ. What is the proper statistical test?
Question options:

a)     t test


b)     means/differences test


c)     Levene's test


d)     ANOVA

Question 29
A meaningful difference is one that the marketing manager:
Question options:

a)     can potentially use as a basis for marketing decisions.


b)     deems to be statistically significant.


c)     finds to be at a ratio of 2 to 1.


d)     finds to be stable over at least a week or so.

Question 30
To test whether a true difference exists between two group percentages, we test the __________ hypothesis.
Question options:

a)     z


b)     t


c)     z or t hypothesis; it does not matter


d)     null

Question 31
The fact that different segments of flu or cold sufferers will consistently seek different medications targeted at their symptoms (sore throat, nasal congestion, cough, etc.) illustrates the use of differences that are:
Question options:

a)     significant.


b)     meaningful.


c)     stable.


d)     actionable.

Question 32
Fortunately, when testing for differences, you will not need to be concerned whether to use the t or z test because:
Question options:

a)     the z is easier to calculate and to interpret and should always be used.


b)     the t is more widely known among statisticians and should always be used.


c)     assumptions of the z and t are minimal and are of concern only to statisticians.


d)     SPSS, and most statistical software packages, are programmed to use the correct statistic.

Question 33
In order to be potentially useful for a marketing manager, differences must at minimum be:
Question options:

a)     at a ratio of 2 to 1.


b)     statistically significant.


c)     new and not part of existing knowledge.


d)     at a ratio of 10 to 1.

Question 34
Which BEST represents the correct meaning of statistical significance of differences?
Question options:

a)     The differences found in sample data may be found in other sample data.


b)     The differences found in sample data may be assumed to exist in the remainder of the sample.


c)     The differences found in the sample may be assumed to exist in the population.


d)     The differences found in the population may be assumed to exist in the sample.

Question 35
A cross-tabulation table is sometimes referred to as a:
Question options:

a)     tabular table.


b)     nonmonotonic display table.


c)     r x c table.


d)     t x n table.

Question 36
The t value is used for many tests instead of the z value because:
Question options:

a)     it is easier to calculate and to interpret.


b)     it is more widely known among statisticians.


c)     assumptions of the z value are violated if sample size is 30 or less.


d)     it is available on statistical software packages.

Question 37
The four basic types of relationships between two variables are:
Question options:

a)     nonmonotonic, duotonic, linear, and curvilinear.


b)     nonmonotonic, duotonic, sublinear, and curvilinear.


c)     nonmonotonic, monotonic, linear, and curvilinear.


d)     causal, consistent, systematic, and linear.

Question 38
You do not have a "relationship" that links the labels (or levels) for two variables unless the relationship is:
Question options:

a)     causal and consistent.


b)     consistent and systematic.


c)     systematic and causal.


d)     systematic and important.

Question 39
In your textbook, you learn to test for significant differences between:
Question options:

a)     two percentages or two means.


b)     two percentages or three percentages.


c)     two means or three percentages.


d)     three or more percentages.

Question 40
If you were to find a significant association between two nominally scaled variables, a good way to present the findings in your cross-tabulation table would be to use:


Question options:

a)     a p value for each nonmonotonic relationship found.


b)     a Sig. value for each nonmonotonic relationship found.


c)     graphical presentations.


d)     numerical presentations that clearly indicate the direction and strength of the relationship.